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Dahasolnce [82]
3 years ago
13

According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model, investors are primarily concerned with portfolio risk, not the risks of individual

stocks held in isolation. Thus, the relevant risk of a stock is the stock's contribution to the riskiness of a well-diversified portfolio.A) TrueB) False
Business
1 answer:
Paha777 [63]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A) True

Explanation:

The purpose of creating a portfolio is to diversify investment and achieve risk reduction as famously conveyed by the proverb, "do not put all the eggs in a single basket".

The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) was developed by William Sharpe and John Lintner. The model explains the relationship between expected return of an investor and the investment risk.

Return earned by a portfolio is the weighted average return of the individual stock returns.

CAPM helps calculate expected return of an investor by the following formula:

Return = R_{f} \ + B(R_{m}\ -\ R_{f}  )

wherein, R_{f} = Risk free rate of return yielded by treasury bonds

              B = Beta, which is a coefficient which conveys the degree of responsiveness of security return in relation to the market return.

             R_{m}= Return which can be earned on market portfolio

Thus, the relevant risk with respect to a portfolio refers to an individual stock's share of contribution to the portfolio risk.

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Identify whether each of the following costs should be classified as product costs or period costs. (a) Manufacturing overhead.
djyliett [7]

Answer:

Product Costs: (a), (e) and (f).

Period Costs: (b), (c) and (d).

Explanation:

The difference between the two types of costs is that product costs are recorded within the inventory asset, since they affect the products. While the period costs are expenses that are recorded in the income statement without affecting inventory costs.

The product costs (Inventory Costs) are:

(a) Manufacturing overhead

(e) Direct labor

(f) Direct materials

The costs of the period (Expenses) are:

(b) Selling expenses.

(c) Administrative expenses

(d) Advertising expenses

Hope this helps!

8 0
3 years ago
To satisfy MSRB disclosure requirements for new municipal issues, a customer would be provided with a copy of the: A legal opini
Lorico [155]

Answer:

B. Official note of sale.

Explanation:

An official note of sale is a disclosure document for new issue municipal bonds. These bonds, when sold by the issuer, must ensure that an officail not of sale is distributed to all purchasers before or at the settlement. The notice of sale is distributed by underwriters.

Cheers.

7 0
4 years ago
Which is a risk in IS development?
Inessa [10]

Answer: system unavailability

Explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
Question 3(Multiple Choice Worth 5 points)
GenaCL600 [577]

Answer:

Money need for  one-year's tuition (A) = $11,590 (Approx)

Explanation:

Given:

Initial value (P) = $10,000

Annual rate of inflation (r) = 3% = 0.03

Time taken = 5 years

Find:

Money need for  one-year's tuition (A)

Computation:

A=p[1+r]^n\\\\A=10,000[1+0.03]^5\\\\A = 11,592.7407

Money need for  one-year's tuition (A) = $11,590 (Approx)

6 0
3 years ago
ABC Corporation had a 1/1/20 balance in the Allowance for Doubtful Accounts of $40,000. During 2020, it wrote off $28,800 of acc
SVETLANKA909090 [29]

Answer:

$20,400

Explanation:

The computation of the bad debt expense for 2020 is shown below:

Ending balance of Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts = Beginning balance of Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts + bad debts -write off amount

where,

Ending balance of allowance for uncollected accounts is

= $800,000 × 5%

= $40,000

Beginning balance of Allowance for Uncollectible Accounts is $40,000

And, the written off amount is

= $28,800 - $8,400

= $20,400

So, the bad debt expense is

= $40,000 - $40,000 + $20,400

= $20,400

We simply applied the above formula so that the bad debt could arrive

6 0
3 years ago
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