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Dahasolnce [82]
3 years ago
13

According to the Capital Asset Pricing Model, investors are primarily concerned with portfolio risk, not the risks of individual

stocks held in isolation. Thus, the relevant risk of a stock is the stock's contribution to the riskiness of a well-diversified portfolio.A) TrueB) False
Business
1 answer:
Paha777 [63]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

A) True

Explanation:

The purpose of creating a portfolio is to diversify investment and achieve risk reduction as famously conveyed by the proverb, "do not put all the eggs in a single basket".

The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) was developed by William Sharpe and John Lintner. The model explains the relationship between expected return of an investor and the investment risk.

Return earned by a portfolio is the weighted average return of the individual stock returns.

CAPM helps calculate expected return of an investor by the following formula:

Return = R_{f} \ + B(R_{m}\ -\ R_{f}  )

wherein, R_{f} = Risk free rate of return yielded by treasury bonds

              B = Beta, which is a coefficient which conveys the degree of responsiveness of security return in relation to the market return.

             R_{m}= Return which can be earned on market portfolio

Thus, the relevant risk with respect to a portfolio refers to an individual stock's share of contribution to the portfolio risk.

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A monopolist will find that its marginal revenue curve Grupo de opciones de respuesta Lies below its demand curve and has the sa
alexdok [17]

Answer:

Lies below its demand curve and is steeper than its demand curve.

Explanation:

The marginal revenue curve for a monopolist lies below the demand curve because of the quantity effect. The quantity effect refers to the fact that even a monopolist must lower its price if it wants to sell a larger quantity of goods or services.

The slope of the marginal revenue curve is steeper than the demand curve because it reflects the market power of the monopolist. Instead, the marginal revenue curve for a perfectly competitive firm (with 0 market power) is horizontal or perfectly elastic.

5 0
3 years ago
In a perfectly competitive market in​ short-run equilibrium,​ _______. A. the price and quantity bought and sold in the market a
Thepotemich [5.8K]

Answer:

D. Market supply and market demand determine the price and quantity bought and sold in the market.

Explanation:

In perfectly competitive market, equilibrium price and quantity is determined at the point where the aggregate supply curve and aggregate demand curve intersect.

If either supply or demand changes, the supply/demand curve will shift to intersect the demand/supply curve at a new equilibrium point.

In other words, although both suppliers and buyers are price-takers they both influence price and quantity bought and sold,<em> at the aggregate level</em>.

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
9. Benchmarking is
Ann [662]

Answer:

d. making comparisons to direct attention to why differences in costs exist across companies.

Explanation:

  • A benchmark is a simple comparison or evaluation of the business processes that measure productivity and time and costs.
  • Used to measure the performance using specific indicators like cost, productivity and time per unit also referred to as the best practice of increasing the performance of the company.
  • It has certain stages like the selection of subjects, definition of the process, identification of potential partners and collection of data.
4 0
3 years ago
A company has net income of $187,000, a profit margin of 8.6 percent, and an accounts receivable balance of $126,370. Assuming 6
NARA [144]

Answer:

35.35  days

Explanation:

For the computation of company’s days’ sales in receivable first we do the following calculations

As we know that

Profit margin = Net income ÷ Sales

0.086 = 187,000 ÷ Sales

Sales = 2,174,418.605

So,

Credit sales = Sales × Sales percentage

= 2,174,418.605 × 0.6

= 1,304,651.163

Receivables turnover ratio = Credit sales ÷ Receivables

= 1,304,651.163 ÷ 126,370

= 10.3241

Now

Days sales in receivables = 365 ÷ Receivables turnover

= 365 ÷ 10.3241

= 35.35 days

4 0
3 years ago
A 25-year, $1,000 par value bond has an 8.5% annual payment coupon. The bond currently sells for $925. If the yield to maturity
ANEK [815]

Answer:

$930.11

Explanation:

We will first find the YTM

Par value 1000

Couple rate 8.50%

N 24

PV $925

PMT $85

FV $1000

We are going to use YTM to find the bonds price of 5 years .

Therefore:

Value in 5 years will be:

N 20

I/YR 9.28%

PMT 85%

FV $1,000

PV $930.116

7 0
3 years ago
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