Answer:
16.8
Step-by-step explanation:
1+tan^2=sec^2
so, given expression=
![\frac{sec^{2}*cot}{cosec^{2} } = \frac{ \frac{1*cot}{ cos^{2} } }{ \frac{1}{ sin^{2} } } =](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20%5Cfrac%7Bsec%5E%7B2%7D%2Acot%7D%7Bcosec%5E%7B2%7D%20%7D%20%3D%20%5Cfrac%7B%20%5Cfrac%7B1%2Acot%7D%7B%20cos%5E%7B2%7D%20%7D%20%7D%7B%20%5Cfrac%7B1%7D%7B%20sin%5E%7B2%7D%20%7D%20%7D%20%3D)
![tan^{2}*cot = tan ](https://tex.z-dn.net/?f=%20tan%5E%7B2%7D%2Acot%20%3D%20tan%20%0A)
(using sin/cos=tan and tan*cot=1)
hence proved
The answer is Angle Bisector.
I think this because if it were to be perpendicular the triangle would have to be congruent in SSS theorem or other.
I hope this helps!
Answer:
IM YOUR ANSWER
Step-by-step explanation:
Let's name the bag of apples "x"
they have 3 bags of apples: 3x
then they need to divide it among 5 people: so each person gets 3/5