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3 years ago

When the allowance method of accounting for uncollectible accounts is used, then

Business

1 answer:

Brums [2.3K]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

Bad debt expense is recorded in the same year as the credit sale.

Explanation:

Allowance method is generally refer to one of the ways for reporting the uncollectible or bad debt expense which results from a company selling the goods on credit.

This method is used for the process or procedure of uncollectible accounts receivable that records the estimate of the bad debt expense in the same accounting year to which is belongs as the sale. This method is used for adjust the accounts receivable appears on the balance sheet of the company.

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Answer:

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3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

On May 3, 2020, Cheyenne Company consigned 90 freezers, costing $480 each, to Remmers Company. The cost of shipping the freezers

Viktor [21]

Answer and Explanation:

The computation is shown below;

Inventory Unsold in Hand (90-45) 45

Unit cost Unsold (45 × 480) $21,600.00

Shipping cost on Unit Unsold (850 ÷ 90 × 45) $425.00

Value of Inventory (21600 + 425) $22,025.00

Sale value (45 × 780) $35,100.00

Less: Cost

Unit cost Sold (21600+425) -$22,025.00

Comission of Consignee (35,100 × 6%) -$2,106.00

Advertising cost -$210.00

Installation cost -$330.00

Net Profit $10,429.00

Sale value (45 × 780) $35,100.00

Less: deduction made by consignee

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Advertising cost -$210.00

Installation cost -$330.00

Net Remittance made by consignee $32,454.00

5 0

3 years ago

g Ming Company has 500,000 shares of $10 par value common stock outstanding. During the year Ming declared a 10% stock dividend

just olya [345]

Answer:

$2,600,000

Explanation:

total shares of ming company = 500000

the dividend = 10%

10% * 500000 = 50000

stock dividend amount = 50000 share x 30 dolarrs

= 1500000

outstanding shares aftrr dividend = 500000+(500000*10%)

= 500000 + 50000 = 550,000

cash dividend = $2 per share

= 550000 * 2

= 1100000

decrease in retained earning = stock dividend + cash dividend

= 1500000 + 1100000

= $2,600,000

7 0

3 years ago

The amount due on the maturity date of a $10,900, 60-day 6%, note receivable is: (Use 360 days a year.)

Marysya12 [62]

Answer:

$11,009

Explanation:

Calculation to determine The amount due on the maturity date

Amount due =10900 x .06 x 1/6 = $109 + $ 10900

Amount due=$11,009

Therefore The amount due on the maturity date is $11,009

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3 years ago

Arthur is a tax preparer doing business as a sole proprietor. Under what circumstances could he receive a pass-through deduction

mestny [16]

It should be noted that the condition where he'll get a pass-through deduction is that he has a taxable income.

A pass-through deduction refers to a business that isn't subject to corporate income tax. Rather, such a business is taxed at individual income tax rates.

From the information given, the condition where Arthur will get a pass-through deduction is that he has a taxable income. Also, the deduction cannot be more than 20% of the taxable income.

Learn more about taxes on:

brainly.com/question/9437038

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3 years ago