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Alexxandr [17]
2 years ago
13

Arthur is a tax preparer doing business as a sole proprietor. Under what circumstances could he receive a pass-through deduction

that is not limited as a result of it being an SSTB?
Business
1 answer:
mestny [16]2 years ago
4 0

It should be noted that the condition where he'll get a pass-through deduction is that he has a taxable income.

A pass-through deduction refers to a business that isn't subject to corporate income tax. Rather, such a business is taxed at individual income tax rates.

From the information given, the condition where Arthur will get a pass-through deduction is that he has a taxable income. Also, the deduction cannot be more than 20% of the taxable income.

Learn more about taxes on:

brainly.com/question/9437038

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2 years ago
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4 0
2 years ago
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Luzadis Company makes furniture using the latest automated technology. The company uses a job-order costing system and applies m
zmey [24]

Answer:

Answer:

1. Overhead over applied= $521,000

2. Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

3. Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

4. Difference between the two CGS= $ 136,060

Explanation:

Predetermined Overhead  Costs $1,152,000

Estimated activity level of 72,000 machine-hours

Overhead rate= $ 1152,000/ 72,000= $ 16 per hour

Manufacturing overhead cost $551,000

Actual hours = 67,000

Overhead applied to WIP = 67,000 * 16= $ 1072,000

Overhead over applied= $ 1072,000 - $551000= $521,000

Part 2:

Factory Overhead   Dr.     $ 521,000

Cost Of Goods Sold Cr.    $ 521,000

The Cost of Goods Sold is credited and Factory overhead is debited.

Part 3:

Suppose the overhead is applied in the following ratio

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $37,520          7%   (37520/536,00*100%)

Finished Goods,              $101,840         19%      (101840/536,00*100%)

Cost of Goods Sold       $396, 640        74%     (396,640/536,00*100%)

Total                        $536,000     100%

The  overhead over applied  would be allocated in the following way applying the same ratio as determined above.

Work in Process,  (ratio)   $521,000 *    7%=  36,470

Finished Goods,              $521,000   *     19%=  98,990

Cost of Goods Sold       $521,000    *    74%=  385,540

Total                        $521,000     100%

Part 4:

Cost of Goods Sold ( overhead applied of $396, 640) $1,472,600

Less    Overhead   overapplied      $ 521,000

CGS = $ 951,000

Cost of Goods Sold (overhead applied to WIP & FG) $1,472,600

Less   Overapplied Overhead $ 385,540

CGS=  $ 1087,060

Difference between the two CGS = $ 1087,060- $ 951,000= $ 136,060

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3 years ago
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Can anyone help me with this?
Nastasia [14]
I think it's the first one

8 0
3 years ago
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