Answer:
25.3%
Explanation:
The expected return can be determined using the capital asset pricing model
The expected return = risk free return + (risk premium x beta)
11.5% + (1.15 x 12%) = 25.3%
I hope you fin the answer im sorry icoukdnt help/
Answer:
d) 14.93%
Explanation:
initial outlay = -$375,000
cash flow year 1 = $315,000
cash flow year 2 = -$25,000
cash flow year 3 = $110,000
cash flow year 4 = $150,000
Since there are two cash outflows, we will have two different IRRs.
We can use an excel spreadsheet and the MIRR function to solve this:
=MIRR (-375000 to 150000, 10%, 10%) = 14.93%
unless told otherwise, we should use the discount rate as both our finance and reinvestment rate.
Answer:
The corret answer is b. decrease assets and decrease liabilities.
Explanation:
First entry
Earnings Accrued (- Net Equity)
to various creditors (+ Liabilities)
Since the minutes of the assembly must indicate that they are taken from the profits of previous years, the accumulated profits are reduced.
Second entry
Miscellaneous creditors (- Liabilities)
to Banks (- Active)
The first entry represents transfer from one liability to another liability. Although we think that capital accounts are not liabilities, it is not true, given that the value of debt to shareholders of the value of your company, so we can group everything in the same bag.
When decreeing dividends, what is done is to cover a small part of that company value. That is, when dividends are decreed, they become part of a formalized liability.
The second entry is the cancellation of the liability, through one of the ways to extinguish the obligations: payment.