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nirvana33 [79]
3 years ago
10

3:20 am to 2:00 am is this 24 hours?

Mathematics
2 answers:
iris [78.8K]3 years ago
4 0
No because 24 hours would be from 3:20 to 3:20
BARSIC [14]3 years ago
4 0
No. That would be 10 hours and 40 minutes
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If x^2=20 what is the value of x will give brainliest for answer
Schach [20]

Answer:

x² - 20 = 0

Using the quadratic formula

x =  \frac{ - b± \sqrt{( {b})^{2} - 4ac } }{2a}

a = 1 b = 0 c = -20

So we have

x =  \frac{ - 0 ±  \sqrt{ {0}^{2}  - 4(1)( -20)} }{2(1)}  \\  \\ x =  \frac{± \sqrt{80} }{2}  \\  \\ x =  \frac{±4 \sqrt{5} }{2}  \\  \\  \\ x = ±2 \sqrt{5}  \\  \\  \\ x = 2 \sqrt{5}  \:  \:  \: or \:  \:  \: x =  - 2 \sqrt{5}

Hope this helps you.

8 0
3 years ago
A recipe uses 1/2 tablespoon of sugar for every 1 1/2 cups of oatmeal. How many tablespoons are used for each cup of oatmeal?
DochEvi [55]
1/2 = 1/1/2 cups
1 cup = 1/3 tablespoons

i am a mathematics teacher. if anything to ask please pm me
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A small airplane can hold 44 passengers.fifteen passengers board the plane a. Identify an inequality that represents the additio
iris [78.8K]

Answers:

Inequality is 15 + p \le 44

Choice A) 30 more passengers cannot board the plane. Only 29 more passengers can board the plane

===============================================

Explanation:

15 people are already on the plane.

p is a placeholder for a positive whole number representing the additional number of people that can get on the plane.

In total, the plane holds 15+p individuals.

This expression's largest possible value is 44. Think of it as the ceiling. In terms of math, we call it the maximum. Since at most 44 people can be on the plane, this means the inequality we'll set up is 15+p \le 44

This says "15+p is less than or equal to 44". It's the same as saying "15+p is 44 or smaller".

---------------------------

To isolate p, we subtract 15 from both sides

Doing so leads to...

15+p \le 44\\\\15+p-15 \le 44-15\\\\p \le 29

We can see that the largest p can get is 29, meaning that at most 29 more people can board the plane. There's no way that 30 people can board. That unfortunate 30-29 = 1 person must wait for another plane.

This all shows why choice A is the answer.

----------------------------

As a way to check the answer, we can note how p = 29 leads to 15+p = 15+29 = 44. We've filled the plane to full capacity.

If p = 30, then 15+p = 15+30 = 45, and we've gone 1 seat overboard.

8 0
3 years ago
PLEASE HELP!!!! WILL GIVE BARAINLYIST!!!!
Klio2033 [76]

Experimental probability = 1/5

Theoretical probability = 1/4

note: 1/5 = 0.2 and 1/4 = 0.25

=============================================

How I got those values:

We have 12 hearts out of 60 cards total in our simulation or experiment. So 12/60 = (12*1)/(12*5) = 1/5 is the experimental probability. In the simulation, 1 in 5 cards were a heart.

Theoretically it should be 1 in 4, or 1/4, since we have 13 hearts out of 52 total leading to 13/52 = (13*1)/(13*4) = 1/4. This makes sense because there are four suits and each suit is equally likely.

The experimental probability and theoretical probability values are not likely to line up perfectly. However they should be fairly close assuming that you're working with a fair standard deck. The more simulations you perform, the closer the experimental probability is likely to approach the theoretical one.

For example, let's say you flip a coin 20 times and get 8 heads. We see that 8/20 = 0.40 is close to 0.50 which is the theoretical probability of getting heads. If you flip that same coin 100 times and get 46 heads, then 46/100 = 0.46 is the experimental probability which is close to 0.50, and that probability is likely to get closer if you flipped it say 1000 times or 10000 times.

In short, the experimental probability is what you observe when you do the experiment (or simulation). So it's actually pulling the cards out and writing down your results. Contrast with a theoretical probability is where you guess beforehand what the result might be based on assumptions. One such assumption being each card is equally likely.

7 0
3 years ago
the mode (rounded to the nearest tenth if needed) of the following data set is 30,29,40,51,39,33,24,60,40,35,58
scoray [572]
The mode is the number that occurs the most in the sequence of numbers, so the mode is 40 since that number is repeated the most in the sequence, 2 times.
7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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