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Annette [7]
3 years ago
15

Currently, Bruner Inc.'s bonds sell for $1,250. They pay a $120 annual coupon, have a 15-year maturity, and a $1,000 par value,

but they can be called in 5 years at $1,050. Assume that no costs other than the call premium would be incurred to call and refund the bonds, and also assume that the yield curve is horizontal, with rates expected to remain at current levels on into the future. What is the difference between this bond's YTM and its YTC? (Subtract the YTC from the YTM.) 2.11% 2.32% 2.55% 2.80% 3.09%
Business
1 answer:
elena-14-01-66 [18.8K]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

2.11%

YTM 0.089142162

YTC 0.068070103

Difference: 0.021072059 = 0.0211 = 2.11%

Explanation:

To calculate each rate we must solve for a rate at which the future coupon payment and maturity (or call value) equals the market price:

This is solve for excel and goal seek tool

It could also be solve with a financial calculator

YTC:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

Coupon payment: $ 120

time 5 yeaars

rate 0.068070103 (solved with excel)

120 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0680701028057608)^{-5} }{0.0680701028057608} = PV\\

PV $494.5766

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity: $ 1,050 (call price)

time   5.00

rate  0.068070103

\frac{1050}{(1 + 0.0680701028057608)^{5} } = PV  

PV   755.42

PV c $494.5766

PV m  $755.4235

Total $1,250.0002

YTM:

C \times \frac{1-(1+r)^{-time} }{rate} = PV\\

Cuopon payment: $ 120

time 15 years

rate 0.089142162 (solved with excel)

120 \times \frac{1-(1+0.0891421622982136)^{-15} }{0.0891421622982136} = PV\\

PV $972.2006

\frac{Maturity}{(1 + rate)^{time} } = PV  

Maturity $ 1,000.00

time   15 years

rate  0.089142162 (solved with excel)

\frac{1000}{(1 + 0.0891421622982136)^{15} } = PV  

PV   277.80

PV c $972.2006

PV m  $277.7995

Total $1,250.0001

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A process control system costs $200,000, has a three year service life, and a salvage value of $20,000. Find the depreciation an
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Answer:

A.

Depreciation expense each of the three years would be $60,000

Book value at the end of year 1 = $140,000

Book value at the end of year 2 =$80,000

Book value at the end of year 3 =  $20,000

B.

Depreciation expense in year 1 =$90,000

Depreciation expense in year 2 =$60,000

Depreciation expense in year 3 =$30,000

Book value at the end of year 1 =$110,000

Book value at the end of year 2 = $50,000

Book value at the end of year 3 =  $20,000

C.

Depreciation expense in year 1 = $133,333.33

Book value at the end of year 1 = $66,666.67

Depreciation expense in year 2 =  $44,444.45

Book value at the end of year 2 = $22,222.22

Depreciation expense in year 3 = $14,814.16

Book value at the end of year 3 = $7,407.40

Explanation:

Straight line depreciation expense = (Cost of asset - Salvage value) / useful life

($200,000 - $20,000) / 3 = $60,000

Depreciation expense each of the three years would be $60,000

Book value at the end of year 1 = $200,000 - $60,000 = $140,000

Book value at the end of year 2 =  $140,000 - $60,000 = $80,000

Book value at the end of year 3 = $80,000 - $60,000 = $20,000

Sum-of-the-year digits = (remaining useful life / sum of the years ) x  (Cost of asset - Salvage value)

Sum of the years = 1 + 2 + 3 = 6 years

Depreciation expense in year 1 = (3/6) x ($200,000 - $20,000) = $90,000

Depreciation expense in year 2 = (2/6) x ($200,000 - $20,000) = $60,000

Depreciation expense in year 3 = (1/6) x ($200,000 - $20,000) = $30,000

Book value at the end of year 1 = $200,000 - $90,000 = $110,000

Book value at the end of year 2 = $110,000 - $60,000 = $50,000

Book value at the end of year 3 = $50,000 - $30,000 = $20,000

Depreciation expense using the double declining method = Depreciation factor x cost of the asset

Depreciation factor = 2 x (1/useful life) = 2/3

Depreciation expense in year 1 = (2/3) x $200,000 = $133,333.33

Book value at the end of year 1 = $200,000 - $133,333.33 = $66,666.67

Depreciation expense in year 2 = (2/3) x $66,666.67 = $44,444.45

Book value at the end of year 2 = $66,666.67 - $44,444.45= $22,222.22

Depreciation expense in year 3 = (2/3) x$22,222.22 = $14,814.16

Book value at the end of year 3 =$22,222.22 - $14,814.16 = $7,407.40

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Katherine Potter knew a good thing when she saw it. At least, it seemed so at first. She was traveling in Italy when she spotted
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  • Katherine's products were mostly purchased on credit. They'd buy a few lamps and a pot, and Katherine would let them pay overtime. Some were extremely slow to pay her, taking six months or more.
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<h3>How is it possible to have high sales and high profits and run out of cash while running a business?</h3>

It is entirely possible if you have a high level of accounts receivables and inventory and a low level of accounts payables. A sale is recorded when an invoice is raised, and a shipment is delivered; this does not always imply that you received cash and that it is recorded in your accounts receivable. Similarly, if you keep a lot of inventory, a lot of your money is locked up until the inventory is sold. On the contrary, if your payment terms with your suppliers are less favorable, you will end up paying before your receivables convert to cash. As a result, high sales and profits do not always imply a strong cash position.

Learn more about profit:

brainly.com/question/13050157

#SPJ4

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Answer:

The most sensible position is to understand that theory, while not practical in itself, can be immensely helpful when dealing with pratical matters.

This is because theory gives you a sound conceptual foundation that can be used to analyze the practical context, and approach it with the best possible practical solutions.

Without theory, managers have to rely too much on intuition, which can often fail.

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They always pay their bills on time or early. They are not at risk for a loan.
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Over spring break, you go to Florida and accidentally spend too much on your checking account's debit card. When you get back to
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Answer:

I think $33

Explanation:

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