Answer:
67%
Explanation:
Money supply = Money multiplier * Deposit worth
3 = Money multiplier * 2
Money multiplier = 3/2
Money multiplier = 1.5
Now, Money multiplier = 1 / Reserve ratio
1.5 = 1 / Reserve ratio
Reserve ratio = 1/1.5
Reserve ratio = 0.6667
Reserve ratio = 67%
So, the percent of deposits the banks hold as reserves is 67%
Answer:
The amount of cash flow from operating activities that would appear on the Year 2 statement of cash flows would be -$850 or $850 outflow
Explanation:
The computation of the cash flow from the operating activities for year 2 is shown below:
= Cash revenue in year 2 - interest on notes payable
= $950 - $1,800
= -$850
The negative amount shows an outflow of cash
.
The interest on the note payable is computed by
= Borrowed amount × interest rate
= $36,000 × 5%
= $1,800
Answer:
$165
Explanation:
The working capital of organization is the difference between the current assets and the current liabilities of the organization. It shows if a company has enough short term assets or asset that can be converted quickly to cash to settle obligations that will arise in the short term.
Working capital as at December 31, 2015
=$1,105 - $915
=$190
Working capital as at December 31, 2016
=$1,320 - $955
=$365
Change in working capital in 2016
= $365 - $190
= $165
Answer:
D.
Explanation:
Marginal Utility puts a numerical value on the amount of satisfaction that a consumer gets from buying an additional unit of a product or service. Therefore based on this information it can be said that the information provided in the question indicates that in order to maximize utility, Ellie should buy more of Alpha and less of Beta, mainly due to the fact that the marginal cost of Alpha is double that of Beta and both cost the same price.
Answer:
The answer is $61,000
Explanation:
An impairment loss is recognized when the carrying amount of an asset is less than its fair value(prevailing market price).
The difference between the carrying value and fair value is written off. Carrying amount is the cost of acquiring an asset minus any subsequent depreciation and impairment charges.
Impairment Loss = Book Value – Market Value
Impairment Loss = $177,500 - $116,500
Impairment loss is $61,000
