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GaryK [48]
3 years ago
11

Question 1 of 20

Medicine
1 answer:
Wittaler [7]3 years ago
3 0

The nurse should question about the use of <u>heparin sodium</u> in the physician’s drug order to a hemorrhagic stroke patient.

Explanation:

A hemorrhagic stroke leads to impaired brain functioning due to bursting of a blood vessel and resultant bleeding in the brain.

When an anticoagulant like heparin is administered to a hemorrhagic stroke patient, it increases the risk of further bleeding from the weakened arteries.

Heparin is administered to reduce or remove any blood clots; however, as a blood thinner, it poses an increased risk of further bleeding or hemorrhage just related to the heparin itself. Blood clotting time should be monitored by coagulation tests while administering heparin-based drugs like heparin sodium.

Complications from heparin sodium can lead to adrenal, ovarian, or retroperitoneal hemorrhage.

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So my dog just ate chocolate and I am really scared please tell me if I should be worried.
Sholpan [36]

Yes, be concerned. My dog died because of chocolate.

8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Which treatment is appropriate for victims of a biological terrorism incident that has caused them to develop hemorrhagic fever?
fomenos

Put on clean clothes after washing with soap and water. Make a call to the authorities and go to the hospital. It can be suggested that you isolate yourself or stay away from other people. If your symptoms are similar to those listed and you fall into the category of those who are at risk, get emergency medical help right once.

<h3>How are bioterrorists handled?</h3>

The CDC recommends intravenous ciprofloxacin or doxycycline together with one or two other antimicrobials, as indicated above, to treat anthrax inhalation in a bioterrorism scenario. Therapy can be altered further when additional data on antibiotic susceptibility becomes available and the clinical situation permits.

Supportive care and antitoxin are included in the treatment of severe symptoms. Biochemical Discord: It's a neurotoxic. Botulinum is one of the most deadly toxins.

To learn more about bioterrorism visit:

brainly.com/question/20535683

#SPJ4

3 0
2 years ago
A nurse is teaching about a new prescription for infliximab to a client who has rheumatoid arthritis. Which of the following inf
Phoenix [80]

Answer: Opcion A. "You will receive a Mantoux test before the initial medication dose"

Explanation: The INFLIXIMAB is one of the medications used for treating Rheumatoid arthritis, among other inflammatory diseases as psoriasic arthritis,  ankylosing spondylitis, Crohn's disease. It is used when the regular treatment has not worked. It helps to reduce pain and joint inflammation.

The mechanism of action of the INFLIXIMAB is to reduce a substance called TNFα (Tumor Necrosis Factor α) responsible for the inflammatory response that helps the body against an antigen. Because this medication reduces this body defense, it is important for the health providers to know in advance if there is a condition or disease in the immune system, cancer, or something that <em>per se</em>, could predispose to infections.

The Mantoux test is a tuberculin skin test that is used to know if a person has an infection with <em>Mycobacterium tuberculosis, </em>the bacteria responsible of causing Tuberculosis. In the test, a tuberculin protein called PPD is used to be injected into the skin, specifically in the forearm. If the person is infected with the bacteria, it is expected that between 48 and 72 hours, the health professional would see an induration in the site of injection.

If someone has a positive tuberculin test, then it would not be possible to administer INFLIXIMAB.

Opcion B. Incorrect. There is no description of diarrhea as an adverse event for using this medication. The adverse effects could be headache, stomach ache, cough or skin allergy. Also, for the suppression of part of the immune system, it is recommended to be aware of symptoms of infection as fever, sweats, muscle pain.

Opcion C. Incorrect. The usual dose of INFLIXIMAB in the treatment of Rheumatoid Arthritis for adults is, an inicial dose, then a second dose 2 weeks later; then, a third dose 4 weeks later, and finally one dose every 8 weeks.

Opcion D. Incorrect. The intranasal influenza vaccine is a "live attenuated" vaccine. If it is administered in a person using INFLIXIMAB, he/she could develop a severe infection by <em>Influenza</em>.

7 0
3 years ago
A pharmacist on the phone with a physician is confused and not sure whether he understands the physician's instructions. Which a
ss7ja [257]

Answer:

D. After listening, the pharmacist could restate the instructions in his own words and then ask if he understood correctly.

Explanation:

I calculated it logically

4 0
3 years ago
Depressants are ______of the GABA neurotransmitter
sattari [20]
A is the answer for this problem
4 0
2 years ago
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