Answer:
19.1% management rate.
Explanation:
Adjusted fee charge per unit = 575
Adjusted fee charge for total unit of product = 575 * 50 = $28750
Net after feel charge on goods = 600000 - 28750 = $571250
15% vacancy and loss rate = .15 * 571250 = $85687.5
Total management fee per year = $114437.5
Percentage rate management fee = (114437.5/600000) *100
= 19.1 %
Answer:
Question 1)
Decrease in money supply = Decrease in checking account / Required reserves ratio
Decrease in money supply = $25,000 / 0.05
Decrease in money supply = $500,000
NOTE: As per Answering Policy, first question is answered.
Explanation:
Question 1)
Decrease in money supply = Decrease in checking account / Required reserves ratio
Decrease in money supply = $25,000 / 0.05
Decrease in money supply = $500,000
NOTE: As per Answering Policy, first question is answered.
Answer:
A. True
Explanation:
Examples of situations that individually or in combination would normally lead to a lease being classified as a finance lease are:
(a) the lease transfers ownership of the underlying asset to the lessee by the end of the lease term;
(b) the lessee has the option to purchase the underlying asset at a price that is expected to be sufficiently lower than the fair value at the date the option becomes exercisable for it to be reasonably certain, at the inception date, that the option will be exercised;
(c) the lease term is for the major part of the economic life of the underlying asset even if title is not transferred;
(d) at the inception date, the present value of the lease payments amounts to at least substantially all of the fair value of the underlying asset; and
(e) the underlying asset is of such a specialised nature that only the lessee can use it without major modifications.
Since at the time of lease the net present value of the payments is 88% of the actual market price and the useful life of the asset was 70% at the end of the lease term and also the title of asset shall not be transferred to lessee at the end of lease term, therefore the lease shall not be classify as finance lease and it shall be classified as operating lease so the answer is A. True
Answer:
The answer is below
Explanation:
A covalent bond is a type of chemical bond that occurs as a result of the sharing of electron pairs between atoms. Covalent bonds are usually formed between non metallic atoms with similar electronegativity. St room temperature, covalent bond exist as either a liquid or a gas. Example of covalent bonds are ozone (O3), water (H2O) etc.
Ozone is said to be covalent bonded because their is a sharing of electrons among the covalent atoms.
The discounted payback period does account for the time value of money, and the payback period does not.
<h3>
What is discounted payback period?</h3>
A method of capital budgeting used for determining a project's profitability is known as discounted payback period. This will be done by recognizing the time value of money and by discounting cash flows of the future.
The payback period is the amount of time it takes for an asset's net cash flows to pay back the amount invested in it. It's a quick and easy technique to assess the risk of a given project.
The advantage of this method is utilized in selecting the projects as this method helps to determine the profitability of any project by identifying measures to reach the break-even point in any project.
Learn more about discounted payback, here
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