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alex41 [277]
3 years ago
10

Which of the following expressions are equivalent to -1/2

Mathematics
2 answers:
pickupchik [31]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

- \frac{a}{b}  =  \frac{ - a}{b}  =  \frac{a}{ - b}

So:

- \frac{1}{2}  =  \frac{ - 1}{2}  =  \frac{1}{ - 2}

So answer is A

Hope this helps ^-^

Levart [38]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

c - none of the above

Step-by-step explanation:

trust me :)

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Nikolay [14]

I believe that it is 2x^2+1x-2

5 0
3 years ago
An individual is at a restaurant with two other people and they are trying to determine the tip for their check total which came
zlopas [31]

Answer:

c. The tip is $10.00

Step-by-step explanation:

The total bill in the restaurant is = $ 68.42

They wanted to pay a gratuity of 15%

Therefore the correct tip can be calculated as :

= 68.42 of 15%

= $68.42 \times \frac{15}{100}$

= 68.42 x 0.15

= 10.263

≈ 10 (approx.)

Thus the individual along with the other two wishes to pay a tip $10.00 for the total value.

7 0
2 years ago
11x + 10y - 8x - 12y<br><br> (a) x + -2y<br> (b) 3x + 2y<br> (c) -x + 2y<br> (d) 3x + -2y
svetoff [14.1K]

Answer:

d) 3x+-2y

Step-by-step explanation:

combine like terms of x and y

11x-8x=3x

10x-12x=-2y

brainliest?

8 0
3 years ago
The marked price of an article is Rs 2,800 which is 40 % above the cost price. If it
mixer [17]

Answer:

mp=2800

mp=cp+40%ofcp=cp+40/100×cp=1.4cp

2800=1.4çp

cp=2800/1.4=2000

discount=20%

profit%=?

Step-by-step explanation:

sp=mp-discount%of mp=2800-20/100×2800=2240

profit=sp-cp=2240-2000=240

profit%=profit/cp×100%=240/2000×100%=12%

7 0
3 years ago
When the domain of a function has an infinite number of values, the range always has an infinite number of values. True or false
iragen [17]

Answer:

Thus, the statement is False!

Step-by-step explanation:

When the domain of a function has an infinite number of values, the range may not always have an infinite number of values.

For example:

Considering a function

f(x) = 5

Its domain is the set of all real numbers because it has an infinite number of possible domain values.

But, its range is a single number which is 5. Because the range of a constant function is a constant number.

Therefore, the statement ''When the domain of a function has an infinite number of values, the range always has an infinite number of values'' is FALSE.

Thus, the statement is False!

3 0
3 years ago
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