Help please!! Show work if possible!
1 answer:
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<h2>Greetings</h2>
<h2>Hope this helps!</h2>
Answer:
Yes, they are.
Step-by-step explanation:
<h3>1st rate)</h3>Lets simplify both rates to the rate typer per minute.
(m is minutes)
3m = 96
Divide both sides by 3:
m = 32
So the rate is 32 words per minute.
<h3>2nd rate</h3>5m = 160
Divide both sides by 5:
m = 32
<h3>So because the rates per minute are the same, they are equivalent.</h3><h2>Hope this helps!</h2>
Answer:
2
Step-by-step explanation:
First thing you gotta do is find the common denominator.
Do this by listing factors of the denominators:
5- 5, 10, 15, 20, 25, 30
6- 6, 12, 18, 24, 30, 36
5 and 6 both have 30 in common so that's the new denominator for all 3 of the terms.
What you do to the bottom you must do to the top.
Since you multiply 5 by 6 to get 30, you must multiply 2 and 4 by 6 as well.
Since you multiply 6 by 5 to get 30, then multiply 5 by 5 as well.
The new equation is:
+
+
=
Now add the numerators together
The solution is . Now simplify. 61 is prime, so you cannot change the fraction How many times does 30 go into 61? Two times. This gives us 2
.
For given sample of salaries of four employees, the variance of their salaries is: 26 thousands of dollars
The formula for the variance is,
where,
= sample variance
= the value of the one observation
= the mean value of all observations
n = the number of observations
For given question,
n = 4
First we find the mean of their salaries.
(33 + 31 + 24 + 36 ) / 4 = 31
So,
Using the formula for variance ,
Therefore, for given sample of salaries of four employees, the variance of their salaries is: 26 thousands of dollars
Learn more about the variance here:
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