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3 years ago

2)

Mathematics

1 answer:

GrogVix [38]3 years ago

5 0

Number two is 8. Using the pythagorean theorem, a^2+b^2=c^2
a^2+6^2=10^2
a^2+36=100
-36 -36
a^2=64
a=8

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Bill owed his brother $21.50, but was able to pay him back $18.75. How much does Bill owe his brother now?

Andrew [12]

Answer:

2.75

Step-by-step explanation:

21.50 - 18.75 = $2.75

CAN I HAVe BRAINLIEST

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3 years ago

Will is buying a house for $185,000. He is financing $165,000 and obtained a 30-year, fixed-rate mortgage with a 6.725% interest

guajiro [1.7K]

<h3>Answer: $1067.45</h3>

=================================================

Work Shown:

L = 165000 = loan amount or amount financed

r = 0.06725 = annual interest rate in decimal form

i = r/12 = 0.06725/12 = 0.005604167

i = 0.005604167 = approximate monthly interest rate in decimal form

n = number of months = 30*12 = 360 months

P = unknown monthly payment

--------------

Apply the monthly payment formula

P = (L*i)/( 1-(1+i)^(-n) )

P = (165000*0.005604167)/(1-(1+0.005604167)^(-360))

P = 1067.44636311118

P = 1067.45

6 0

3 years ago

Please help me thanks very much

Luba_88 [7]

The second question is the first choice

7 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Jacques needs to convert the function f(x) = x2 − 6x + 14 to vertex form, f(x) = (x − h)2 + k, in order to find the minimum.

Anarel [89]

k = 5

the equation of a parabola in vertex form is

y = a(x - h)² + k

where (h, k ) are the coordinates of the vertex and a is a multiplier

To obtain this form use the method of completing the square

Since the coefficient of the x² term is 1 then

add/ subtract (half the coefficient of the x-term )² to x² - 6x

f(x) = x² + 2(- 3)x + 9 - 9 + 14 = (x - 3)² + 5 → k = 5

5 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Let the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie have a Poisson distribution. We want the probability that a cookie

ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

$\lambda \geq 6.63835$

Step-by-step explanation:

The Poisson Distribution is "a discrete probability distribution that expresses the probability of a given number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space if these events occur with a known constant mean rate and independently of the time since the last event".

Let X the random variable that represent the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie. We know that $X \sim Poisson(\lambda)$

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

$f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...$

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter $\lambda$

$E(X)=\mu =\lambda$

On this case we are interested on the probability of having at least two chocolate chips, and using the complement rule we have this:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X$

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

$P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^0}{0!}=e^{-\lambda}$

$P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^1}{1!}=\lambda e^{-\lambda}$

And replacing we have this:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)]=1-[e^{-\lambda} +\lambda e^{-\lambda}[]$

$P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)$

And we want this probability that at least of 99%, so we can set upt the following inequality:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)\geq 0.99$

And now we can solve for $\lambda$

$0.01 \geq e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)$

Applying natural log on both sides we have:

$ln(0.01) \geq ln(e^{-\lambda}+ln(1+\lambda)$

$ln(0.01) \geq -\lambda+ln(1+\lambda)$

$\lambda-ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01) \geq 0$

Thats a no linear equation but if we use a numerical method like the Newthon raphson Method or the Jacobi method we find a good point of estimate for the solution.

Using the Newthon Raphson method, we apply this formula:

$x_{n+1}=x_n -\frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}$

Where :

$f(x_n)=\lambda -ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01)$

$f'(x_n)=1-\frac{1}{1+\lambda}$

Iterating as shown on the figure attached we find a final solution given by:

$\lambda \geq 6.63835$

4 0

3 years ago