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Blizzard [7]
3 years ago
12

PLS HELP What is the quotient?

Mathematics
2 answers:
bezimeni [28]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

- 22

Step-by-step explanation:

just took the test. edge 2020

ryzh [129]3 years ago
3 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

2\frac{1}{5}dividedby\frac{-1}{10}=2\frac{1}{5}*\frac{-10}{1}\\\\=\frac{11}{5}*\frac{-10}{1}\\\\=11*-2=-22\\

Keep the first fraction, change division to multiplication and find the reciprocal(multiplicative inverse) of the second fraction

\frac{11}{50}dividedby\frac{11}{50}=\frac{11}{50}*\frac{50}{11}\\\\ =1

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The answer is x= -6/7<span><span>​​</span></span>
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Question 1 Unsaved
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The average of the given base lengths is the length of the midsegment:

... (72 + 104)/2 = 176/2 = 88

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3 years ago
In ΔWXY, x = 1.2 inches, y = 3.1 inches and ∠W=131°. Find ∠X, to the nearest 10th of an degree.
Oxana [17]

Answer:

13.1

Step-by-step explanation:.

6 0
2 years ago
A batch of 500 machined parts contains 10 that do not conform to customer requirements. Parts are selected successively, without
sveticcg [70]

Question:

For the following exercise, determine the range (possible values) of the random variable. A batch of 500 machined parts contains 10 that do not conform to customer requirements. Parts are selected successively, without replacement, until a nonconforming part is obtained. The random variable is the number of parts selected.

Answer:

Possible values are all integers from 1 to 491.

{1,2,...........491}

Step-by-step explanation:

Given:

Total number of machined parts = 500

Number that do not conform to customers requirements = 10

Number that conforms to customers requirements = 500 - 10 = 490

Since, parts are selected successively, without replacement, until a nonconforming part is obtained, the range of the random variable (number of parts selected) here will be all integers from 1 to 491 ie {1,2,...........,491}.

Here, we have a total of 490 conforming parts, and 10 non conforming parts, there must be a non-conforming part among 491 selections, considering the fact that total number of parts are 500

7 0
3 years ago
A leprechaun places a magic penny under a girl's pillow. The next night there are 2 magic pennies under her pillow. The followin
dezoksy [38]

Answer:

<u><em></em></u>

  • <u><em>32 days</em></u>

Explanation:

Simulate (build a table) the growing of the number of pennies for some nights to figure out the pattern:

First night:          1 penny = 2⁰

Second night:    1 × 2 pennies = 2¹

Third night:        2 × 2 = 2²

Fourth nigth:      2² × 2 = 2³

nth night:           2ⁿ⁻¹

You want 2ⁿ⁻¹ ≥ 2,000,000,000

Which you solve in this way:

  • 2ⁿ⁻¹  ≥ 2,000,000,000

  • 2ⁿ⁻¹ ≥ 2,000,000,000

  • n-1 log (2)  ≥ log (2,000,000,000)

  • n - 1  ≥ log (2,000,000,000) / log (2)

  • n - 1 ≥ 30.9

  • n ≥ 31.9

Since n is number of days, it is an integer number, so n ≥ 32.

Hence, she will have a total of more than $ 2 billion after 32 days.

You can prove that by calculating 2³² = 2,147,483,648.

5 0
3 years ago
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