Answer:
read below
Step-by-step explanation:
Alright, archtan /
tan
−
1
(
x
)
is the inverse of tangent. Tan is
sin
cos
. Like the inverse of sin, the inverse of tan is also restricted to quadrants 1 and 4.
Knowing this we are solving for the inverse of tan -1. We are basically being asked the question what angle/radian does tan(-1) equal. Using the unit circle we can see that tan(1)= pi/4.
Since the "Odds and Evens Identity" states that tan(-x) = -tan(x). Tan(-1)= -pi/4.
Knowing that tan is negative in quadrants 2 and 4. the answer is in either of those two quadrants. BUT!!! since inverse of tan is restricted to quadrants 1 and 4 we are left with the only answer -pi/4.
the answer is m=-3n-5/2 or n=2m+5/6
-10 because its a negative and that's the opposite of the greatest itreger
Answer: 1/2
Step-by-step explanation:
Let the missing fraction be x
x + 1/16 = 3/2
Make x the subject by subtracting both sides by 1/16
x = 3/2 - 1/16
x= 24 - 16/16
= 8/16; divide through by a common value of 8
x = 1/2
I hope this helps.
Do it according to the order of operations
(P)E^MxD/A+S-
the answer would be -13
