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4 years ago

Help plz i dont understand this I'm going crazy

Mathematics

2 answers:

natka813 [3]4 years ago

6 0

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

2*18-18=18

2*[28-3*(2+4)] = 20

18<20

avanturin [10]4 years ago

4 0

Answer:

symbol is <

Step-by-step explanation:

evaluate the left and right sides for comparison

left = (2 × 18 ) - 18 = 36 - 18 = 18

right = 2[28 - (3 × 6) ] = 2[28 - 18] = 2 × 10 = 20

18 < 20

hence replace ? with <

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3 years ago

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Consider this system of equations. Which shows the second equation written in slope intercept form?

lora16 [44]

Answer: Second option.

Step-by-step explanation:

The Slope-Intercept form of the equation of the line is:

$y=mx+b$

Where "m" is the slope of the line and "b" is the y-intercept.

You know that the second equation of the System of equations given in the exercise is:

$10(x+\frac{3}{5})=2y$

Then, you need to solve for the variable "y" in order to write it in Slope-Intercept form. The steps are:

1. Apply the Distributive property and simplify:

$10x+\frac{30}{5}=2y\\\\10x+6=2y$

2. Now subtract 6 from both sides of the equation:

$10x+6-6=2y-6\\\\10x=2y-6$

3. Subtract $2y$ from both sides of the equation:

$10x-2y=2y-6-2y\\\\10x-2y=-6$

4. Subtract $10x$ from both sides:

$10x-2y-10x=-6-10x\\\\-2y=-10x-6$

5. Divide both sides by -2:

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3 years ago

34. Find each of the following probabilities when n indepen- dent Bernoulli trials are carried out with probability of success p

mr Goodwill [35]

Answer:

A.) (1 - p)^n

B.) 1 - (1 - p)^n

C.) (1 - p)^n + np*(1-p)^(n-1)

D.) 1 - (1 - p)^n - np*(1-p)^(n-1)

Step-by-step explanation:

General form of a binomial probability :

P(x = x) = nCx * p^x * q^(n-x)

q = 1 - p ; n = number of trials ; x = number of successes ; p = probability of success

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P(x = 0) = 1 * 1 * (1 - p)^n

P(x = 0) = (1 - p)^n

Probability of atleast one success = 1 - P(no success)

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x = 0)

P(x = 0) = (1 - p)^n

P(x ≥ 1) = 1 - P(x = 0) = 1 - (1 - p)^n

Probability of at most one success

P(x ≤ 1) = p(x = 0) + p(x = 1)

P(x = 0) = (1 - p)^n

P(x = 1) = nC1 * p^1 * (1 - p)^(n-1)

P(x = 1) = n * p * (1 - p)^(n-1) = np*(1-p)^(n-1)

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Probability of atleast two successes:

(1 - probability of at most 2 successes)

P(x ≥ 2) = 1 - P(x ≤ 1)

P(x ≥ 2) = 1 - (p(x = 0) + p(x = 1))

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6 0

3 years ago

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rosijanka [135]

Option A

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<em><u>Solution:</u></em>

Given expression is:

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To evaluate the expression, let us make the exponent of 10 same

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[ Here, decimal point is moved three times left, so add 3 ]

Therefore,

$(7 \times 10^{-3}) - (2.3 \times 10^{-6}) = (7 \times 10^{-3}) - (0.0023 \times 10^{-3})$

$\text{Take the } 10^{-3} \text{ as common }$

$(7 \times 10^{-3}) - (0.0023 \times 10^{-3}) = 10^{-3}(7-0.0023)\\\\\text{ Solve for terms inside the bracket }\\\\(7 \times 10^{-3}) - (0.0023 \times 10^{-3}) = 10^{-3} \times 6.9977\\\\\text{Therefore, the simplified expression is: }\\\\(7 \times 10^{-3}) - (0.0023 \times 10^{-3}) = 6.9977 \times 10^{-3}$

Thus Option A is correct

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4 years ago

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Nadusha1986 [10]

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The fraction for boy-versus-boy game will be 10/45 or 2/9 when simplified.

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3 years ago