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bonufazy [111]
3 years ago
11

Estimate 58% of 121 by using 10%

Mathematics
1 answer:
kvv77 [185]3 years ago
5 0
58% is about equal to 60%, 10% of 121 is 12.1.
12.1 * 6 = 72.6
To take this further, 58% is 2% less than 60%, or 2 times 1%. 1% of 121 is 1.21.
72.6  - (1.21 * 2) = 72.6 - 2.42 = 70.18
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6a and 6b are having a competition to see who can make the most money for Red Crescent. 6a make $2 for every $3 that 6b make. If
GaryK [48]

Answer:

45

Step-by-step explanation:

6a 6b

2 : 3

30 : x

<u>30</u><u>×</u><u>3</u>

2

=45

4 0
3 years ago
What is the result when −2/3 subtracted from −14/15?
disa [49]

Step-by-step explanation:

14/15 - 2/3 =

14/15 and 2/3 lcm is 15

so 14/15 becomes 14/15

- 2/3 become 10/15

15÷5=3 and 10÷5=2

so 14/15

-10/15=4/15

14-10 = 4

answer is 4/15 and since 15 can't be divided by 4 equally it is in simplest form at 4/15

7 0
3 years ago
Evaluate the expression.
Zinaida [17]

Answer:

-2(10(-4))²

-2(-40)²

-2 × 1600

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6 0
2 years ago
If Rs 42,000 is left after paying an income tax at the rate of 30%.Find the income
Naddika [18.5K]

Answer:

Total income is 60,000

Step-by-step explanation:

I. if paid rate is 30%, that's mean 42,000 is 70%

II. Perform ratio 70/100 = 42,000/x

                       70*x = 100 * 42,000

                        70x = 4,200,000

                            x = 60,000

III. If you perform 30/100 = x/60,000 will be 42,000

Sorry for late.

                       

5 0
3 years ago
The probability that Caroline wins a raffle is given by the expression
RSB [31]

Answer:  \frac{n-m}{n}

This is the same as writing (n-m)/n

Don't forget about the parenthesis if you go with the second option.

==================================================

Explanation:

The probability that she wins is m/n, where m,n are placeholders for positive whole numbers.

For instance, m = 2 and n = 5 leads to m/n = 2/5. This would mean that out of n = 5 chances, she wins m = 2 times.

The probability of her not winning is 1 - (m/n). We subtract the probability of winning from 1 to get the probability of losing.

We could leave the answer like this, but your teacher says that the answer must be "in the form of a combined single fraction".

Doing a bit of algebra would have these steps

1 - \frac{m}{n}\\\\\frac{n}{n} - \frac{m}{n}\\\\\frac{n-m}{n}\\\\

and now the expression is one single fraction.

8 0
3 years ago
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