Answer:
A. 2500
Explanation:
10,000 shares x $5 x .05= 2500
The equation for problem above is:
350.25+12/100*x=800.5
12/100*x=800.5-350.25
12/100*x=450.25
12x=45025
x=45025/12=3752.08
But the question is "at <span>least" $800.50 so the final answer is
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Based on the present value of the annual cash flows and the investment cost, the present value index is 1.39
<h3>How is the present value index calculated?</h3>
To find the present value index, use the formula:
= Present value of cash flow/Investment cost
The present value of cash flow is:
= Annual cash flows x Present value interest factor of annuity, 9%, 4 years
= 2,480 x 3.239719877
= $8,034.51
The present value index is:
= 8,034.51 / 5,800
= 1.39
Find out more on present value index at brainly.com/question/23259683
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If the severity of risk is low and the frequency of the risk event occurring is high thanwe should Avoid the risk.
High Frequency/ High Severity- Risks are almost certain to occur and when they occur impact will be very high. In such a case it is best to use Avoidance as a risk management technique. If avoidance is not possible then prevention and insurance techniques can be considered. High frequency/ Low severity- This more serious risk and occurrence is high but the impact is low. Examples of such risks include workers’ injuries and shoplifting. A common way to manage this type of risk is through Prevention.
Low frequency/ High severity- The impact of these kinds of risks is very high and can bankrupt a business. Insurance is the best technique to manage these risks that have low loss frequency and high loss severity. Low frequency/ Low severity- Retaining and self-insuring the risk. Risk occurrence is low and impact is also very low. In most cases, the costs of managing them outweigh the cost of retaining them.
Learn more about risk frequency here:- brainly.com/question/254161
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