Answer: 4. Demand will shift inwards, lower rates and decreasing lending.
Explanation:
People demand loanable funds for spending on consumption and investment. If there is a recession, people will buy less goods and companies will invest less as well.
This will reduce the demand that people and companies have for loanable funds. The demand will therefore shift inwards to the left and lead to lower rates and decreased lending.
They have many potential <u>Entry Modes</u> at their disposal.
<h3>What is Entry Mode?</h3>
Foreign market entrance modes in international trade are the methods through which a corporation can expand its services into a non-domestic market.
Market entrance options are classified into two types: equity and non-equity. Export and commercial agreements are examples of non-equity mechanisms. Joint ventures and totally owned subsidiaries are examples of equity models. Different entrance mechanisms differ in three key ways:
- The level of danger they pose.
- Control and dedication to the resources required.
- The promised return on investment
Therefore, Companies like my gym, which seek to do business in new markets for manufacturing and/or marketing purposes, have many potential <u>Entry Modes</u> at their disposal.
For more information on Entry Modes, refer to the given link:
brainly.com/question/17232113
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Answer:
The correct answer is The covenant of warranty.
Explanation:
It is said that in this type of pact a public and peaceful possession must be written, which can be exercised so that it can be known by society. The possession of the property must be declared as continuous (that is, there can be no claim by the owner or the property is lost), and must be exercised as the legitimate owner before third parties.
Answer:
She will have $16,772.59 more in the second investment.
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Recently she received an inheritance of $54,000 from her grandmother's estate. She plans to use the money for the down payment on a home in ten years when she finishes her education.
We need to use the following formula:
FV= PV*(1+i)^n
First savings account:
FV= 54,000*(1+0.04)^10= $79,933.19
Second investment:
FV= 54,000*(1+0.06)^10= $96,705.78
She will have (96,705.78 - 79,933.19) $16,772.59 more in the second investment.
Answer:
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Explanation:
