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3 years ago

If an 8 hour work day includes a total break time of 22 1/4%, how many hours are used for breaks?

Mathematics

1 answer:

torisob [31]3 years ago

4 0

Answer:

1 39/50 hours. This is equivalent to 1.78 hours.

Step-by-step explanation:

The sum of the hours of work and the hours for break gives the work day hour which has been given as 8 hours.

Furthermore, given that the break time is 22 1/4%, the number of hours for break

= 22 1/4% × 8 hours

= 89/400 × 8

= 1 39/50 hours

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When temperature is zero degree Celsius, the Fahrenheit temperature is 32. When the Celsius temperature is 100, the correspondin

7nadin3 [17]

Answer:

$\\ y = 1.8(x) + 32$ or $\\ y = \frac{9}{5}(x) + 32$

or equivalently:

$\\ F = 1.8(C) + 32$ or $\\ F = \frac{9}{5}(C) + 32$

Step-by-step explanation:

To express the Fahrenheit temperature as a linear function of the Celsius temperature, F(c), we can proceed as follows.

We can use here the two-point form equation of a line:

$\\ y-y_1 = \frac{y_2 - y_1}{x_2 - x_1}(x-x_1)$ [1]

We are asked to express the Fahrenheit temperature as a function of Celsius temperature, so the independent variable, in this case, is x (Celsius temperature) and the dependent variable is y (Fahrenheit temperature).

When temperature is zero degree Celsius ( $\\x_1 = 0$ ), the Fahrenheit temperature is 32 ( $\\y_1 = 32$ ).

When the Celsius temperature is 100 ( $\\x_2 = 100$ ), the corresponding Fahrenheit temperature is 212 ( $\\y_2 = 212$ ).

Then, using [1], we have:

$\\ y-32 = \frac{212 - 32}{100 - 0}(x-0)$

$\\ y-32 = \frac{180}{100}(x)$

$\\ y-32 = 1.8(x)$ .

It could be also be written as:

$\\ y-32 = \frac{18}{10}(x)$ = $\\ y-32 = \frac{9}{5}(x)$ , as it commonly appears in books.

Then the Fahrenheit temperature express as a linear function of the Celsius temperature, F(c) is ( solving the equation for y ) :

$\\ y = 1.8(x) + 32$ or $\\ y = \frac{9}{5}(x) + 32$ .

Or equivalently:

$\\ F = 1.8(C) + 32$ or $\\ F = \frac{9}{5}(C) + 32$

We can check this using the given values from the question:

For 0 Celsius degrees, the Fahrenheit temperature is:

$\\ y = 1.8(0) + 32$ = 32 Fahrenheit degrees.

For 100 Celsius degrees, the Fahrenheit temperature is:

$\\ y = 1.8(100) + 32 = 180 + 32$ = 212 Fahrenheit degrees.

5 0

3 years ago

Claire sat a Spanish test and a French test.

posledela

Answer:

french

Step-by-step explanation:

convert both to percentage:

1. spanish:

$\frac{27}{32} \times 100 = 84.375$

2.French:

$\frac{19}{21} \times 100 = 90.476$

therefore Claire did better in the French test

6 0

3 years ago

What is the value of the expression i 0 × i 1 × i 2 × i 3 × i 4?

astraxan [27]

ANSWER

The value of the expression is
$- 1$

EXPLANATION

Method 1: Rewrite as product of
${i}^{2}$

The expression given to us is,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4}$

We use the fact that
${i}^{2} = - 1$
to simplify the above expression.

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{4}$

This implies,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{0} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{2}$

We substitute to obtain,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = 1\times - 1 \times - 1 \times - 1\times - 1 \times - 1$

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = 1\times 1 \times 1 \times - 1 = - 1$

Method 2: Use indices to solve.

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{0 + 1 + 2 + 3 + 4}$

This implies that,

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = {i}^{10}$

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = ( {{i}^{2}} )^{5}$

${i}^{0} \times {i}^{1} \times {i}^{2} \times {i}^{3} \times {i}^{4} = ( - 1 )^{5} = - 1$

8 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

katrina drinks 0.5 gallons of water per day. which expression shows how to find the number of cups of water she drinks in a week

iogann1982 [59]

There 16 cups in a gallon, so it would be 16×.05 times the number of days in a week which is 7 so it would be 16×.05×7

4 0

3 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Simplify.

Mekhanik [1.2K]

Answer: