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Nadusha1986 [10]
3 years ago
5

Helllllllppppp ....,.:,:::;;,:()$?;;:/&//&

Mathematics
1 answer:
yKpoI14uk [10]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The answer is 41>6t+7

Step-by-step explanation:

It said that he wants to earn "more than" $41 so the inequality sign is more than. Then it says $6 per hour so 6t. Then you add $7

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Mark and peter went to an arcade where the machines took tokens. Marilk played 9 games of ping pong and 5 games of pinball, usin
Readme [11.4K]

Answer:

9x + 5y = 29 ........... (1) and

3x + y = 7 ........... (2)

Each game of ping pong requires 1 number of token and each game of pinball requires 4 number of tokens.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let, each game of ping pong requires x number of tokens and each game of pinball requires y number of tokens.

So, from the given conditions we can write

9x + 5y = 29 ........... (1) and

3x + y = 7 ........... (2)

Now, solving equations (1) and (2) we get,

9x + 5(7 - 3x) = 29

⇒ 35 - 6x = 29

⇒ 6x = 6

⇒ x = 1 token.

Now, putting x = 1 in equation (2) we get,

3 + y = 7

⇒ y = 4 tokens.

So, each game of ping pong requires 1 number of token and each game of pinball requires 4 number of tokens. (Answer)

6 0
3 years ago
Please answer the following questions: <br><br> 1. 1/2*8=<br> 2. 1/4*4=<br> 3. 1/3*6=
yan [13]
Hey there!

When we multiply fractions and whole numbers, we simply take that whole number and put it over them, and just multiply across. That gives us:

\frac{1}{2}x*8 = \frac{8}{2} = 4

Notice how it's four, because when we have a fraction, we divide. 8 divided by 2 equals four. Next:

\frac{1}{4} *4 = \frac{4}{4} = 1

4/4 is equal to 1 because 4 divided by 4 is one. 4 goes into 4 once. Next, we have:

\frac{1}{3}*6 = \frac{6}{3} = 2

That's because 6/3 = 2.

Hope this helps!

7 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Does anyone know the answer?
Alex787 [66]

Answer:

£0.60

Step-by-step explanation:

If each pack costs £1.59 and Nadia orders 15 packs,

then the total order before discount = 1.59 x 15 = £23.85

From the table given, we can see that for an order of £23.85 a 2.5% discount will be applied.

Divide £23.85 by 100 to get 1%:  £23.85 ÷ 100 = £0.2385

Now multiply by 2.5 to get 2.5%:  £0.2385 × 2.5 = £0.59625 = £0.60

Alternatively, the calculation in one expression is:

(1.59 × 15) × 0.025 = 0.59625

7 0
2 years ago
What is the remainder when 16,055 is divided by 16? (Input numeric values only)
Rudik [331]

Answer:56

Step-by-step explanation:

with 16 into 55 do that math then put the number you got then put it into another 16 boom 56

7 0
3 years ago
Car A has an initial value of 30,000 and depreciates at a rate of 20% per year. Car B has an initial value of 20,000 and depreci
Doss [256]

Answer:

The value of Car B will become greater than the value of car A during the fifth year.

Step-by-step explanation:

Note: See the attached excel file for calculation of beginning and ending values of Cars A and B.

In the attached excel file, the following are used:

Annual Depreciation expense of Car A = Initial value of Car A * Depreciates rate of Car A = 30,000 * 20% = 6,000

Annual Depreciation expense of Car B from Year 1 to Year 6 = Initial value of Car B * Depreciates rate of Car B = 20,000 * 15% = 3,000

Annual Depreciation expense of Car B in Year 7 =  Beginning value of Car B in Year 7 = 2,000

Conclusion

Since the 8,000 Beginning value of Car B in Year 5 is greater than the 6,000 Beginning value of Car A in Year 5, it therefore implies that the value Car B becomes greater than the value of car A during the fifth year.

Download xlsx
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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