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Leviafan [203]
3 years ago
15

_____ is a direct inducement offering extra incentives anywhere along the marketing route to enhance the movement or accelerate

the product’s movement from producer to consumer.
Business
1 answer:
____ [38]3 years ago
7 0

Answer: sales promotion

Explanation: In simple words, sales promotion refers to the process under which an organisation uses specific tools and strategies to persuade potential customers to purchase their product.

These strategies are used for short time purpose and have no effective impact if the organisation is trying to build a customer base for longer time period.

Sales promotion techniques can be implemented directly towards customers or towards sales staff and channel members which indirectly effects customers. Contests, coupons and freebies are some of many examples of sales promotion.

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J has a life policy with the Guaranteed Insurability rider. J has just celebrated their 42nd birthday and realizes that she want
posledela

Answer:

C. The insurer will deny J's request to add more insurance.

Explanation:

The Guaranteed Insurability Rider means extra policy which is an addition to  insurance rider policy and allows the purchaser of the policy to purchase extra life insurance on the life of the insured at prearranged periods of time.

Usually, this ability to purchase  extra life insurance  ends at the age of 40 and since the J has just celebrated the 42nd birthday, therefore he will not be eligible to buy more death benefit.

Based on the above discussion, the answer shall be C. The insurer will deny J's request to add more insurance.

8 0
4 years ago
Sandra has two credit cards, P and Q. Card P has a balance of $726.19 and an interest rate of 10.19%, compounded semiannually. C
Elan Coil [88]
First, convert interest to the effective annual interest rate using this formula:

(1 + i/m)^m - 1, where m = 2 for semiannual and m = 12 for monthly. Then, use this formula to find the future worth:

F = P(1+i)^n, where P is $726.19 and <span>$855.20, respectively, for Card P and Q. n is equal to 4.

Card P: F = 1080.704
Card Q: F = 1206.284

Then, find the amount decrease by subtracting F - P.

Card P: F - P = $354.514
Card Q: F - P = $351.084

The difference between the two is $3.43. Thus, the answer is C.</span>
5 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
M/b ratios typically exceed -select- , which means that investors are willing to pay more for stocks than their accounting book
skad [1K]

M/b ratios typically exceed one, which means that investors are willing to pay more for stocks than their accounting book values.

The Book value is the carrying amount of the company's assets minus the receivables (such as company liabilities) that exceed common stock. The term book value comes from the accounting practice of accounting for assets at their original costs.

The Book value of a company is total assets minus total liabilities. Total assets and total liabilities are included on the balance sheet of the annual and quarterly reports.

Book value refers to the value of the asset reported on the balance sheet, that is, the value of the asset after the accumulated depreciation has been recorded. Every company owns multiple assets. Therefore, every business also has a book value, which is the present value of the asset minus the liability or accrued debt.

Learn more about investors here: brainly.com/question/690070

#SPJ4

4 0
2 years ago
Consider a 11-period binomial model with R=1.02R=1.02, S_0 = 100S 0 ​ =100, u=1/d= 1.05u=1/d=1.05. Compute the value of a Europe
____ [38]

Answer: 1.76

Explanation:

Given the following :

R=1.02,

S0 = 100

u=1/d= 1.05

Strike(k) = 102

Total Payoff = (probability of upside × upside Payoff) + (probability of downside × downside Payoff)

Upside Price = u × S0 = 1.05 × 100 = 105

downside Price = S0/u = 100/1.05 = 95.24

Upside Payoff = upside price - strike rate =(105 - 102) = 3

Upside probability :

[e^(r - q) - d] / u - d

E = exponential, q = Dividend (Dividend is 0, since the stock does not pay dividend)

d = 1/d = 1/1.05 = 0.9523809

e = 2.7182818

[2.7182818^(1.02% - 0) - 0.9523809] / (1.05 - 0.9523809)

[1.0102521 - 0.9523809] / 0.0976191

0.0578712 / 0.0976191

= 0.5928266

Probability of downside = 1 - p(upside)

P(downside) = 1 - 0.5928266

P(downside) = 0.4071733

Therefore, total Payoff =

(0.5928266 × 3) + (0.4071733 × 0)

= 1.7784798

European. Call option:

Total Payoff / (1 + r%)

1.7784798 / (1 + 1.02%)

=1.7784798/ (1 + 0.0102)

= 1.7784798 / 1.0102

= 1.7605224

= 1.76

4 0
3 years ago
When the economy suffers a downturn and the incomes of many people decrease, vacationers are more likely to take car trips than
inysia [295]

Answer: Air travel is a normal good and vacation travel by car is an inferior good

Explanation: What is a normal good and what is an inferior good.

Normal goods are those goods for which the demand rises as consumer income rises. While inferior goods are goods whose demand increases when consumer income decreases.

This therefore means that the demand of inferior goods is inversely related to the income of the consumer.

From the question above, we can say that car trips are inferior goods while the air travel are normal goods.

3 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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