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vovangra [49]
2 years ago
8

Is pie over 2 rational

Mathematics
1 answer:
Anvisha [2.4K]2 years ago
7 0

Pi is irratinal and 2 is rational so pi/2= 1.5707963

because pi =3.1415... and so on

so 1.5707963 is irrational because it never repeates.

so your awnser is <u><em>Irrational</em></u>.

hope this helps!!!!!!

have a nice day

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Answer: 18+36=$54

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The second week when she walked dogs 4 times, she'd earn $36 (4*9=36).

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3 years ago
sing the expression x + 3, write one equation that has one solution, one equation that has no solution, and one equation that ha
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Answer:  one solution  x + 3 = 5   x = 2   no other other value for x is possible

No solution:  (x + 3) = 2(x +3)  

Infinitely many solutions:  x+3 = 3 + x

Step-by-step explanation:

why (x + 3) = 2(x +3)  has no solution. Can you solve?

x+3=2x+6 -x=3 x=-3 substute -3 for x

(-3)+ 3)= 2[(-3) +3]

-3+3 = -6 +3

0 = -3 False!

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6 0
3 years ago
Two numbers have a difference of 8 what is the minimum product of these numbers
Nady [450]

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

4 0
3 years ago
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Find the probability of at least 6 failures in 7 trials of a binomial experiment in which the probability of success in any one
oksano4ka [1.4K]

Answer:

P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)

And we can find the individual probabilities:

P(X=6)=(7C6)(0.91)^6 (1-0.91)^{7-6}=0.358

P(X=7)=(7C7)(0.91)^7 (1-0.91)^{7-7}=0.517

And replacing we got:

P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)= 0.358+0.517=0.875

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

The binomial distribution is a "DISCRETE probability distribution that summarizes the probability that a value will take one of two independent values under a given set of parameters. The assumptions for the binomial distribution are that there is only one outcome for each trial, each trial has the same probability of success, and each trial is mutually exclusive, or independent of each other".

Solution to the problem

Let X the random variable of interest, on this case we now that:

X \sim Binom(n=7, p=1-0.09=0.91)

The probability associated to a failure would be p =1-0.09 = 0.91

The probability mass function for the Binomial distribution is given as:

P(X)=(nCx)(p)^x (1-p)^{n-x}

Where (nCx) means combinatory and it's given by this formula:

nCx=\frac{n!}{(n-x)! x!}

And we want to find this probability:

P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)

And we can find the individual probabilities:

P(X=6)=(7C6)(0.91)^6 (1-0.91)^{7-6}=0.358

P(X=7)=(7C7)(0.91)^7 (1-0.91)^{7-7}=0.517

And replacing we got:

P(x \geq 6)=P(X=6)+P(X=7)= 0.358+0.517=0.875

6 0
3 years ago
A car rental company charges $56 per day plus $0.30 per mile driven. John paid $86 after renting a car for one day. What equatio
Masteriza [31]

Answer:

x + 56 = 86.

Step-by-step explanation:

6 0
3 years ago
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