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trapecia [35]
3 years ago
9

The scale of a room in a blueprint is 2 inches : 1 foot. A window in the same blueprint is 12 inches. How long is the actual win

dow?
Mathematics
1 answer:
Basile [38]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

The window is actually 6 feet long

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this problem we have to see how to use the scale

2 in : 1ft

We divide the 12 inches that we have by the 2 inches of the scale

12 in / 2 in = 6

Now we multiply the number he gave us by 1ft of the scale

6 * 1ft = 6ft

The window is actually 6 feet long

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Marianna [84]

Answer:

1. 22

2. 8

3. 31

4. 20

5. 38

6. 22

7. 26

8. 16

9. 14

10. 28

Step-by-step explanation:

USE PEMDAS

P: Parantheses

E: exponents

D: division

A: addition

S: subtraction

and ywww

8 0
3 years ago
Help me out here plssss
Minchanka [31]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

SV = RV

2x+2 = 10

x = 4

r² = RV² + VZ² = 10²+7.5² = 156.25

UZ = √[r²- (QR/2)²] = √[156.25 - 10²] = √56.25 = 7.5

5 0
3 years ago
Use a graphing calculator to graph f(x) = x+cos(kx). Use calculus to determine which values of k lead to a function with no loca
nataly862011 [7]

Answer:

Below, you can see the graph of the function:

f(x) = x + cos(k*x)

for different values of k, as follows:

red: k = 1

green: k = 2

orange: k = 0.

Now let's find the values of k such that our function does not have local maxima nor local minima.

First, remember that for a given function f(x), the local maxima or minima points are related to the zeros of the first derivate of f(x).

This means that if:

f'(x0) = 0.

Then x0 is a maxima, minima or an inflection point.

Then if a function is such that the f'(x) ≠ 0 , ∀x, then this function will not have local maxima nor minima.

Now we have:

f(x) = x + cos(k*x)

then:

f'(x) = 1  - k*sin(k*x)

This function will be zero when:

1 = k*sin(k*x)

1/k = sin(k*x)

now, remember that -1 ≤ sin(θ) ≤ 1

then if 1/k is smaller than -1, or larger than 1, we will not have zeros.

And this will happen if -1 < k < 1.

7 0
3 years ago
Find a such that the solution of y'' + y' − 2y = 0, y(0) = a, y' (0) = 1 tends to zero as t → +∞.
Kay [80]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

y'' + y' − 2y = 0, y(0) = a, y' (0) = 1

Auxialary equation is

m^2+m-2=0\\m=-2,1

General solution is

y=Ae^{-2x} +Be^x

y(0) = A+B =a

y'(0) = -2Ae^{2x} +Be^x = -2A+B = 1

Eliminate B to get

3A =a-1

We know that y tends to 0 when x tends to infinity for any finite A

i.e. a should be a finite real number.

8 0
3 years ago
What is 4% of 75 please
Paul [167]
4% Of 75 is 3 so yeah the answer to your question is 3
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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