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xxTIMURxx [149]
3 years ago
5

The December 31, 2015, balance sheet of Maria’s Tennis Shop, Inc., showed current assets of $1,105 and current liabilities of $9

15. The December 31, 2016, balance sheet showed current assets of $1,320 and current liabilities of $995. What was the company's 2016 change in net working capital, or NWC? (Do not round intermediate calculations and round your answer to the nearest whole number, e.g., 32.) Change in net working capital
Business
1 answer:
IrinaK [193]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

$165

Explanation:

The working capital of organization is the difference between the current assets and the current liabilities of the organization. It shows if a company has enough short term assets or asset that can be converted quickly to cash to settle obligations that will arise in the short term.

Working capital as at December 31, 2015

=$1,105 - $915

=$190

Working capital as at December 31, 2016

=$1,320 - $955

=$365

Change in working capital in 2016

= $365 - $190

= $165

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soldier1979 [14.2K]

Answer:

The correct answer is letter "A": forward vertical integration.

Explanation:

Forward integration happens when a business takes over functions that were originally performed by its partners in the supply chain. Forward integration can be horizontal and vertical. Forward horizontal integration takes place when one company takes over another at the same level of the supply chain. In forward vertical integration, a firm takes charge of the businesses located farther down the supply chain.

4 0
3 years ago
Your client, Cascade Company, is planning to invest some of its excess cash in 5-year revenue bonds issued by the county and in
muminat

Answer:

Memorandum

Date 27th March'2017

To: Cascade Company

Subject: Re: Accounting treatment for the investments based on FASB Codification research

Purpose

This memorandum addresses the investment concern of Cascade Company in Teton Co. about accounting treatment based on FASB Codification research

Details

Query- 1). Since the Teton shares do not trade on one of the large stock markets; Cascade argues that the fair value of this investment is not readily available. According to the authoritative literature, when is the fair value of a security “readily determinable”?

Query- 2). How is an impairment of a security accounted for?

Query- 3). To avoid volatility in their financial statements due to fair value adjustments, Cascade debated whether the bond investment could be classified as held-to-maturity; Cascade is pretty sure it will hold the bonds for 5 years. How close to maturity could Cascade sell an investment and still classify it as held-to-maturity?

Query- 4). What disclosures must be made for any sale or transfer from securities classified as held-to-maturity?

Issue:

1) To determine accurately the fair value of the security of a given firm or Company, the necessary three conditions to be met are:  

  • The fair value per share, in another word known as a unit must be indomitable and in print.  
  • At this point, the unit qualifies to be the basis for current transactions.  
  • In an event the fair market value of an equity security is determined then the sales price can be easily reached on a securities exchange which is registered with the United States Securities and Exchange Commission.
  • The sales price also can made be available in the over the counter markets. The last condition relates in foreign market situations exclusively. The overseas market should be analogous in width and extent to the American markets pursuant to (FASB, ASC 320-10-20).

2) The impairment of a security is accounted for by evaluation of the impairment test to the level of loss in value showing exterior the temporary measures. The company is allowed to take stepladder to recognize and account for securities grouped as either available for sale or held to maturity by making an assessment of whether a decline in fair value down the amortized cost basis is other than temporary. Providing a general allowance for anonymous impairment in securities portfolio in an inappropriate way (FASB, ASC 320-10-35-18). Additionally, amortized initial outlay exceeds the fair value of a project or investment at the date of balance sheet reporting period for which the respective impairment is assessed, the impairment is either other than temporary or temporary”(FASB, ASC 320-10-35-30).

3) To classify a bond as a held to maturity investment, the company must have the affirmative intent and capability to hold respective securities to maturity (FASB, ASC 320-10-25-1). In case the bonds were sold as a five-year term, it would be satisfactory to categorize the asset as held-to-maturity. It depends upon standard to sell a held-to-maturity security early. The sale of a held-to-maturity security must be in rejoinder to an actual decline, not mere conjecture, to the credit worthiness of the issuer pursuant to as according to (FASB, ASC 320-10-25-5(d)). Cascade can only sell the security based on the standards adjoining held-to-maturity categories if following conditions are met:

  • The security sale appears near adequate to its maturity time (or call period if exercise of the call is plausible) that risk on interest rate is significantly removed as a pricing factor, or  
  • The sale of a security appears after the firm has already unruffled a considerable portion of the principal outstanding at acquisition due either to scheduled payments on a debt security payable in equal installments or to prepayments on the debt security (it would include both principal and interest) over its term period (FASB, ASC 320-10-25-14).

4) The entities must disclose the following for either the sale or transfer from securities classified as held-to-maturity:

  • The net carrying amount of the security transferred or sold.
  • The aggregate amount of net gain or loss that is accumulated in other comprehensive income for derivatives which is hedged the predetermined acquisition of the security held-to-maturity.
  • The correlated amount realized or unrealized loss or gain
  • The state of affairs leading to the decision to sell or transfer the security. (These transfers or sales should be rare on exceptions for transfers or sales due to the changes in conditions in accordance to paragraph 320-10-25-6(a) through (f))” (FASB, ASC 320-10-50-10).

8 0
3 years ago
A low P/E for a stock indicates that:
pishuonlain [190]

Answer:

(A). People may expect earnings to fall in the future, perhaps because the firm will be faced with increased competition.

Explanation:

Price Earnings ratio of a company represents market price per share of a company's stock in relation to it's earnings per share.

Price Earnings ratio(PER) is given by the following formula:

PER = \frac{Market\ Price\ Per\ Share}{Earnings\ Per\ Share}

A lower P/E Ratio indicates that a company's market price of a share is lower relative to it's earnings. This means the company's stock is undervalued.

It can also mean that the company's earnings have increased which in turn has increased it's earnings per share.  

Investors in general expect lower earnings in future for the stock of a company with low P/E Ratio.

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Ben recently lost his job at a major U.S. auto plant in one of the rust belt states. After looking unsuccessfully for work in a
Alexandra [31]

Answer: <em>Option (d) is the correct answer.</em>

Ben view the investment by government as a way to jump start a weak economy, i.e. investment by government will allow industries to hire new employees or workforce in order to meet production demand. Thereby increasing government spending through investing in construction of road and bridge, Ben assumes that the state will intervene in market to help revive a weak economy.

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3 years ago
Which set of changes is definitely predicted to lower real gdp in the short run?
Tatiana [17]
D. foreign real national income falls and wages rates rise. 
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3 years ago
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