Answer:
9.1%
Explanation:
With regards to the above, margin is computed as;
Margin = (Net operating income ÷ Sales) × 100
Given that:
Net operating income = $2,597,140
Sales = $28,540,000
Margin = ($2,597,140 ÷ $28,540,000) × 100
Margin = 9.1%
Answer:
D. All the Above
Explanation:
A. Lead to greater productivity
This is true because through specialization and competitive advantages you can achieve greater productivity in the production of goods and services. If you have a competitive advantage, it is because you have more capital, infrastructure and specialized human capital in the production of a specific type of good or service so that a greater amount of that good can be produced than another country in the same time.
B. Lead to greater output even if you can do everything better than someone else.
This is true since although a country has a competitive advantage in all industries, concentrating its labor and capital in the production of the good or service in which it has the greatest competitive advantage will allow a higher level of production in that sole good/service than if he divided his resources into the production of other goods and services.
C. Lead to international trade and overall gains for the nations involved.
This point, despite being true, is debatable. In theory, international trade allows to reach greater levels of wealth to the countries involved by being able to exchange the goods in which they have competitive advantage for others that if they were produced in the country they would consume part of their resources by not having such high productivity as if it will trade with a country that does have the capacity to produce it.
Having this clear, we can say that all of the above are true, so the answer is D.
The answer to this question is <span>5% and the quantity supplied rises by 7%.
A product is considered as elastic if the change in prices will also affect the changes in total supply.
Usually, this type of products are not considered unique or rare and there are a lot of substitute for this product in the market</span>
Answer:
The annuity will cost him $963,212.95.-
Explanation:
Giving the following information:
Cash flow= $75,000
Interest rate= 0.0525
n= 20
First, we need to calculate the final value. We will use the following formula:
FV= {A*[(1+i)^n-1]}/i + {[A*(1+i)^n]-A}
A= annual cash flow
FV= {75,000*[(1.0525^20) - 1]/0.0525} + {[75,000*(1.0525^20)] - 75,000}
FV= 2,546,491.88 + 133,690.82= $2,680,182.70
Now, the present value:
PV= FV/(1+i)^n
PV= 2,680,182.70/(1.0525^20)
PV= $963,212.95
