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postnew [5]
3 years ago
11

Manuel is making cookies for the holidays. Each batch of cookies he will make requires 3/4 cup of sugar. He has a total of 2 5/8

cups of sugar. Write an inequality that can be used to find b, the number of batches of cookies Manuel can make.
Mathematics
1 answer:
vichka [17]3 years ago
5 0
Set up proportions.
 3/4 cups → 1 batch
x cups    → 2 batches 
x = 2(3/4) = 6/4 = 1 1/2 cups 
3/4 cups → 1 batch
y cups → 9 batches


y = 9(3/4) = 6 3/4 cups
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1,2,4,6,7 is the answer
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Amaya's grandfather purchased a $150 savings bond when she was born. When Amaya is 30 years old, the bond will have earned 120%
Alenkinab [10]

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i think its 330 so sorry if im wrong

Step-by-step explanation:

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2 years ago
Sunny earns \$12$12dollar sign, 12 per hour delivering cakes. She worked for xxx hours this week. Unfortunately, she was charged
dezoksy [38]

Answer:

12x - 15 dollars

Step-by-step explanation:

Sunny earns $12 per hour for delivering cakes.

She worked for x hours this week.

Unfortunately, she was charged $15 for a late delivery on Tuesday

She was supposed to earn $12 × x = $12x this week

But she was charged $15 for late delivery on Tuesday

So her net earning this week is; $12x - $15

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3 years ago
Graph the line with slope 3/5 and y-intercept -2
AnnyKZ [126]

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2 years ago
Refer to the Trowbridge Manufacturing example in Problem 2-35. The quality control inspection proce- dure is to select 6 items,
Ivanshal [37]

Answer:

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each item, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. The probability of an item being defective is independent of other items. So we use the binomial probability distribution to solve this question.

Binomial probability distribution

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

The true proportion of defects is 0.15

This means that p = 0.15

Sample of 6:

This means that n = 6

What is the probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6?

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)

In which

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{6,0}.(0.15)^{0}.(0.85)^{6} = 0.3771

P(X = 1) = C_{6,1}.(0.15)^{1}.(0.85)^{5} = 0.3993

P(X \leq 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1) = 0.3771 + 0.3993 = 0.7764

77.64% probability that there will be 0 or 1 defects in a sample of 6.

5 0
3 years ago
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