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mario62 [17]
3 years ago
7

Simon lost $4,300 gambling this year on a trip to Las Vegas. In addition, he paid $2,650 to his broker for managing his $265,000

portfolio, and $1,030 to his accountant for preparing his tax return. In addition, Simon incurred $3,160 in transportation costs commuting back and forth from his home to his employer's office, which were not reimbursed. Calculate the amount of these expenses that Simon is able to deduct (assuming he itemizes his deductions).
Business
2 answers:
shusha [124]3 years ago
7 0

Answer:

$3680

Explanation:

Simon's expenses can be grouped into two classes namely:

- tax deductible expenses.

- non-tax deductible expenses

From the question, his tax deductible expenses are

Broker fees : $2650

Accountant fees : $1030

(for preparing tax returns)

                           =  $3680

His transportation expense is not tax-deductible as it is seen as a personal expense while his gambling loss of $4300 is only deductible to the extent of gambling wins itemized. Since he didn't itemize any gambling wins, his gambling loss is not tax-deductible.

Ostrovityanka [42]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Assuming Simon’s AGI is $40,000.

Gambling losses are only deductible to the extent of gambling winnings. Thus,Simon cannot deduct any of the $4,300 gambling losses. The $3,160 transportation expenses are also nondeductible as they are deemed to be personal expenses. The $2,650 broker management fees are deductible as investment fees (miscellaneous itemized deductions subject to the 2% AGI floor), and the $1,030 tax return fees are also deductible as miscellaneous itemized deductions subject to the 2% AGI floor.

Thus, $2,650 + $1,030 – (2% x $40,000 AGI) = $2,880 deduction

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Irene wants to start a business selling t-shirts. irene's top priority is that she alone has complete control over management de
antoniya [11.8K]

The answer is LLC or also known as Limited Liability Company. This type of hybrid legal entity has the characteristic of mixed characteristics of a partnership, sole proprietorship and even a company in which they have a limited liability that could also be similar to shareholders in a corporation.

3 0
3 years ago
A stock has an expected return of 11.85 percent, its beta is 1.24, and the expected return on the market is 10.2 percent. What m
prisoha [69]

Answer:

The risk free rate is 3.325%

Explanation:

The required rate of return or cost of equity of a stock can be calculated using the CAPM. The CAPM estimates the required rate of return of a stock based on three factors- risk free rate, stock's beta and the market risk premium. The equation of required rate of return under CAPM is,

r = rRF + Beta * (rM - rRF)

Where,

  • rRF is the risk free rate
  • rM is the return on market
  • (rM - rRF) gives us the risk premium of market

We already have the values for r, Beta and rM. Plugging in these values in the formula, we calculate the rRF to be,

Let rRF be x.

0.1185 = x + 1.24 * (0.102 - x)

0.1185 = x + 0.12648 - 1.24x

1.24x - x  =  0.12648 - 0.1185

0.24x = 0.00798

x = 0.00798/0.24

x = 0.03325 or 3.325%

3 0
3 years ago
7.37 For the net cash flow series, (a) determine the number of possible i* values using the two sign tests, (b) find the EROR us
nlexa [21]

Answer:

The answer is 25.19% .

Note: The values were not stated for the net series cash flows, during my research and i found the complete question and solved it.

Explanation:

<em>From the question given,</em>

<em>The first step is to make use of a table for the net cash flow series</em>

<em>Year                      1                  2                3              4             5             6</em>

<em>Net cash flow    $4100   $2000         $7000         $12000  $700       $800</em>

<em>Then,</em>

<em>Solution : MIRR is defined as modified internal rate of return, It accounts for the positive cash flows with reinvestment by using re-investment rate and negative cash flows are calculated at their present values to keep the fund aside by using finance rate. </em>

<em> As given also reinvestment rate = 20% and finance cost rate = 10%. </em>

<em> Now, from the table given of cash flows, we will calculate the future value of all cash flows in year 6. </em>

<em> FV = 4100*(1+0.20)^5 + 12000*(1+0.20)^2 + 800*(1+0.20)^0 = $28282.11 </em>

<em> Now,</em>

<em> By applying the rate of   we will computer teh PV of -ve cash flows : </em>

<em> PV = -2000/(1+0.1)^2 + -7000/(1+0.1)^3 + -700/(1+0.1)^5 = -$7346.73 </em>

<em> Now MIRR can be calculated by using the formula , MIRR = \√[n]{FV(positive cash flows/PV of negative cash flows)}-1 = \√[6]{28282.11/7346.74)}-1 </em>

<em> MIRR = 1.2519-1 = 0.2519 or 25.19% </em>

<em> Therefore, the only value Possible = 25.19% in this case.</em>

5 0
3 years ago
Canoe Company's manufacturing accounting system uses direct labor costs to apply overhead to goods in process and finished goods
sasho [114]

Answer:

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= $0.2 per direct labor dollar

Explanation:

Giving the following information:

Direct labor, $30,000

Factory overhead applied $6,000.

<u>To calculate the predetermined overhead rate, we need to use the following formula:</u>

Allocated MOH= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate* Actual amount of allocation base

6,000= Estimated manufacturing overhead rate*30,000

6,000 / 30,000 = Estimated manufacturing overhead rate

Estimated manufacturing overhead rate= $0.2 per direct labor dollar

4 0
3 years ago
Consider a risky portfolio. The end-of-year cash flow derived from the portfolio will be either $50,000 or $150,000, with equal
Ann [662]

Answer:

Kindly check explanation

Explanation:

Given the following :

Risk free return (risk less investment) = 5%

Cashflow derived from portfolio = $50,000 or $150,000 each at a probability of 0.5

(a) If you require a risk premium of 10%, how much will you be willing to pay for the portfolio?

Risk premium = 10%

Required return on portfolio = risk premium + risk free return = (10% + 5%) = 15%

Expected value of cashflow:

(0.5 × $50,000) + (0.5 × $150,000)

$25,000 + $75,000 = $100,000

Value of portfolio = Amount paid(a) × (1 + required return)

100,000 = a( 1 + 0.15)

100,000 = 1.15a

a = (100,000 / 1.15)

a = 86956.521

a = $86,956.5

B) If amount paid for portfolio = $86,956.5

Expected rate of return :

(Expected value - amount paid) / amount paid

= ($100,000 - $86,956.5) / $100,000

= $13043.5 / $100,000

= 0.130435 = 13.04%

C.) Now suppose you require a risk premium of 15%. What is the price you will be willing to pay now?

Risk premium = 15%

Required return on portfolio = risk premium + risk free return = (15% + 5%) = 20%

Value of portfolio = Amount paid(a) × (1 + required return)

100,000 = a( 1 + 0.20)

100,000 = 1.20a

a = (100,000 / 1.20)

a = 83333.333

a = $83,333.3

D.)

At a required risk premium of 10%, portfolio will sell at $86,956.5

At a required risk premium of 15%, portfolio will sell at $83,333.3

Hence, the price at which a portfolio will sell decreases as risk premium increases.

7 0
3 years ago
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