Answer:
The present value of the dividends to be paid out over the next six years if the required rate of return is 15 percent is $6.57
Explanation:
Solution:
Given that
The present value =∑ ⁿ t=1 cf/ (1 +r)t
where cf= cash flow
r =the required rate of return
t = the number of years
Now
The present value will be:
cf₁/(1+r)^1 + cf₂/(1 +)^2 + cf₃/(1+r)3 + cf₄/(1 +r)^4) + cf₅/(1 +r)^5 + cf₆/(1+r)^6
Hence,
cf₁, cf₂ cf₃ = 0 as the firm does not expect to pay dividend in the next three years
Note: Kindly find an attached document of the part of the solution to this given question
Answer:
a. Division A = 5.80 %, Division B = 8.95 %
b. Division B is superior. Because, it generates a greater profit margin per each sale made.
Explanation:
<u> a. Compute the profit margins</u>
Profit margin = Profit / Sales × 100
Division A = $134,000 / $2,310,000 × 100
= 5.80 % (2 decimal places.)
Division B = $33,400 / $373,000 × 100
= 8.95 % (2 decimal places.)
<u> b. Based on the profit margins</u>
Division B is superior as it generates a greater profit margin per each sale made.
Answer and Explanation:
The journal entries are shown below:
1 Equipment $53,420
To Cash $53,420
(Being the equipment is purchased for cash is recorded)
The computation is given below:
= Cash price of machine + sales tax + shipping cost + insurance during shipping + installation and testing cost
= $49,500 + $3,650 + $100 + $60 + $110
= $53,420
2. Depreciation expense $9,614
To Accumulated Depreciation - Equipment $9,614
(Being the depreciation expense is recorded)
The computation is shown below:
= ($53,420 - $5,350) ÷ ( 5 years)
= $9,614
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Answer:
Option B) Accounts Receivable
Explanation:
In the Direct write-off method the company registered an entry that debit Bad Debts Expense and an credit entry in the Accounts Receivable.
In this method doesn't exist a contra asset account such as Allowance for Doubtful Accounts, the Bad Debt Expenses are reported on the Income Statement one year later of the sale.
