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pashok25 [27]
3 years ago
9

What is the inverse of f(x)=log(x)

Mathematics
1 answer:
AlladinOne [14]3 years ago
3 0

The inverse function of the logarithm is the exponential function:

f(x) =\log(x) \implies f^{-1}(x) = e^x

In fact, the expression y = \log(x) means that if you want to obtain x, you have to give y as exponent to e: e^y = x

So, we can check both expressions:

e^{\log(x)} = x, because this expression means "I am giving to e the following exponent: a number that, when given as exponent to e, gives x".

On the other hand, you have

\log(e^x) = x, because this expression means "what exponent do I have to give to e to obtain e^x?". Well, you've basically already written it: if you want to obtain e^x, you have to give the exponent x.

So, we've shown that e^{\log(x)} = \log(e^x) = x, which proves that y=\log(x) and y = e^x are one the inverse function of the other.

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