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3 years ago

I need help can you help me my question is how do I multiply 27 1/8 x 2 1/9 step by step if possible

Mathematics

2 answers:

larisa [96]3 years ago

5 0

Answer:54 1/72

Step-by-step explanation: 1st you multiply the whole numbers. 2nd multiply denominators (8•9) =72 3rd put into fraction form. So your answer is 54 1/72. Does this make sense?

Masteriza [31]3 years ago

5 0

Step-by-step explanation:

First, turn the mixed fractions into improper fractions.

27 1/8 = 217/8

2 1/9 = 19/9

Next, mulitply the numerators and the denominators.

numerators- 217 x 19 = 4123

denominators- 8 x 9 = 72

= 4123/72

Since this fraction can not be simplifyed, the next step would be to divide the numerator by the denominator.

4123 ÷ 72= 57 R 19 (click the link for the long division)

https://www.calculatorsoup.com/calculators/math/longdivision.php?dvsor=72&dvdnd=4123&action=solve

= 57 19/72

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What is the approximate value of 113−−−√ to the nearest tenth?

castortr0y [4]

Answer:

10.6

Step-by-step explanation:

1. First, we need to find which digits √(113) is between, and that would be 10 and 11.

2. Okay, so √(113) is between 10 and 11, meaning 113 is between 100 and 121.

3. Since 113 is a little over half between 100 and 121, let's multiply 10.6 by 10.6 to see how close we are to 113:

$10.6 * 10.6$
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4. 112.36 is pretty close to 113, therefore, the dot on the number-line should be placed at 10.6.

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3 years ago

Restaurateur Denny Valentine is evaluating two sites, Raymondville and Rosenberg, for his next restaurant. He wants to prove tha

Aleksandr-060686 [28]

Answer:

$\bar X_1$ represent the sample for the sample 1

$\bar X_2$ represent the sample for the sample 2

$s_1$ represent the deviation for the sample 1

$s_2$ represent the deviation for the sample 2

$n_1 = 81$ represent the sample size for the group 1

$n_2 = 81$ represent the sample size for the group 2

And on this case if we create the system of hypothesis we have this:

Null hypothesis : $\mu_1 -\mu_2 \leq 0$

Alternative hypothesis: $\mu_1 -\mu_2 >0$

Step-by-step explanation:

Previous concepts

A hypothesis is defined as "a speculation or theory based on insufficient evidence that lends itself to further testing and experimentation. With further testing, a hypothesis can usually be proven true or false".

The null hypothesis is defined as "a hypothesis that says there is no statistical significance between the two variables in the hypothesis. It is the hypothesis that the researcher is trying to disprove".

The alternative hypothesis is "just the inverse, or opposite, of the null hypothesis. It is the hypothesis that researcher is trying to prove".

On this caseHe wants to prove that Raymondville residents (population 1) dine out more often than Rosenberg residents (population 2). So this statement need to be on the alternative hypothesis. And the complement of the alternative hypothesis would be on the null hypothesis.

Solution to the problem

We assume that we have the following statistics:

$\bar X_1$ represent the sample for the sample 1

$\bar X_2$ represent the sample for the sample 2

$s_1$ represent the deviation for the sample 1

$s_2$ represent the deviation for the sample 2

$n_1 = 81$ represent the sample size for the group 1

$n_2 = 81$ represent the sample size for the group 2

And on this case if we create the system of hypothesis we have this:

Null hypothesis : $\mu_1 -\mu_2 \leq 0$

Alternative hypothesis: $\mu_1 -\mu_2 >0$

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3 years ago

Write 0.088 as a fraction in simplest form.

zhenek [66]

11/25

88/1000
Divide each by 8
11. Times 8
125 times 8

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3 years ago

How do I solve 24(x-1) = -6(4-x)+18

podryga [215]

So the right answer is 1.

Look at the attached picture

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2 years ago

Read 2 more answers

Let the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie have a Poisson distribution. We want the probability that a cookie

ludmilkaskok [199]

Answer:

$\lambda \geq 6.63835$

Step-by-step explanation:

The Poisson Distribution is "a discrete probability distribution that expresses the probability of a given number of events occurring in a fixed interval of time or space if these events occur with a known constant mean rate and independently of the time since the last event".

Let X the random variable that represent the number of chocolate chips in a certain type of cookie. We know that $X \sim Poisson(\lambda)$

The probability mass function for the random variable is given by:

$f(x)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^x}{x!} , x=0,1,2,3,4,...$

And f(x)=0 for other case.

For this distribution the expected value is the same parameter $\lambda$

$E(X)=\mu =\lambda$

On this case we are interested on the probability of having at least two chocolate chips, and using the complement rule we have this:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-P(X$

Using the pmf we can find the individual probabilities like this:

$P(X=0)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^0}{0!}=e^{-\lambda}$

$P(X=1)=\frac{e^{-\lambda} \lambda^1}{1!}=\lambda e^{-\lambda}$

And replacing we have this:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-[P(X=0)+P(X=1)]=1-[e^{-\lambda} +\lambda e^{-\lambda}[]$

$P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)$

And we want this probability that at least of 99%, so we can set upt the following inequality:

$P(X\geq 2)=1-e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)\geq 0.99$

And now we can solve for $\lambda$

$0.01 \geq e^{-\lambda}(1+\lambda)$

Applying natural log on both sides we have:

$ln(0.01) \geq ln(e^{-\lambda}+ln(1+\lambda)$

$ln(0.01) \geq -\lambda+ln(1+\lambda)$

$\lambda-ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01) \geq 0$

Thats a no linear equation but if we use a numerical method like the Newthon raphson Method or the Jacobi method we find a good point of estimate for the solution.

Using the Newthon Raphson method, we apply this formula:

$x_{n+1}=x_n -\frac{f(x_n)}{f'(x_n)}$

Where :

$f(x_n)=\lambda -ln(1+\lambda)+ln(0.01)$

$f'(x_n)=1-\frac{1}{1+\lambda}$

Iterating as shown on the figure attached we find a final solution given by:

$\lambda \geq 6.63835$

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2 years ago