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Sever21 [200]
3 years ago
14

Which rate is the lowest price? $5.60 for 8 $4.80 for 6 $4.50 for 5 $0.75 each

Mathematics
1 answer:
Jet001 [13]3 years ago
3 0

You can calculate percentages by first finding what 10% of a value is and then what 5 or 1% is. From there you can multiply to find multiples and then add to get the required percentage. The example below shows this.

<span>What is 35% of $40?<span>Step 1<span>What is 10% of $40?10% of $40 = $40 ÷ 10 =<span> $4</span></span><span>10% is a relatively easy percentage and can be found by<span> dividing by 10</span>.</span></span><span>Step 2<span>3 x $4 = $1230% of $40 = $12</span>30% is 3 times ( 3 x) 10% so we multiply what 10% of $40 is by 3</span><span>Step 3<span>What is 5% of $40?5% of $40 = $4 ÷ 2 =<span> $2</span></span><span>5% is half of what 10% is so divide what 10% is by 2 .</span></span><span>Step 4<span>What is 35% of $40?$12 + $2 = $14</span><span>Add what</span></span></span>
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If Sarah has 50 Nickles and 20 dimes and Bill has 230 pennies and 5 quarters. Who has the more amount of money?
ser-zykov [4K]

Hi,

Your Question states: If Sarah has 50 Nickles and 20 dimes and Bill has 230 pennies and 5 quarters. Who has the more amount of money?

Answer: Sarah

Explanation: Sarah amount is $2.50, because the amount of nickels is 5 cents and if you multiply 5 times 50 you answer becomes $2.50. 20 dimes and every dime is 10 multiples up to $2.00. 230 is $2.30, and 5 quarters each being 25 cents is $1.25 so your answer is Sarah with 50 nickels.

I Hope I Helped!

<em>~KingJupiter</em>

8 0
4 years ago
Read 2 more answers
For reviewing purposes
sergeinik [125]

Answer:

(25-16)/9=

=9/9=1 because 5^2 is 25 and 3^2 is 9 (5x5)/(3x3)

5 0
3 years ago
Rockwell hardness of pins of a certain type is known to have a mean value of 50 and a standard deviation of 1.8. (Round your ans
Alenkinab [10]

Answer:

a) 0.011 = 1.1% probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 17 pins is at least 51

b) 0.0001 = 0.1% probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 45 pins is at least 51

Step-by-step explanation:

To solve this question, we need to understand the normal probability distribution and the central limit theorem.

Normal probability distribution

Problems of normally distributed samples are solved using the z-score formula.

In a set with mean \mu and standard deviation \sigma, the zscore of a measure X is given by:

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

The Z-score measures how many standard deviations the measure is from the mean. After finding the Z-score, we look at the z-score table and find the p-value associated with this z-score. This p-value is the probability that the value of the measure is smaller than X, that is, the percentile of X. Subtracting 1 by the pvalue, we get the probability that the value of the measure is greater than X.

Central Limit Theorem

The Central Limit Theorem estabilishes that, for a normally distributed random variable X, with mean \mu and standard deviation \sigma, the sampling distribution of the sample means with size n can be approximated to a normal distribution with mean \mu and standard deviation s = \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{n}}.

For a skewed variable, the Central Limit Theorem can also be applied, as long as n is at least 30.

In this problem, we have that:

\mu = 50, \sigma = 1.8

(a) If the distribution is normal, what is the probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 17 pins is at least 51?

Here n = 17, s = \frac{1.8}{\sqrt{17}} = 0.4366

This probability is 1 subtracted by the pvalue of Z when X = 51. So

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{\sigma}

By the Central Limit Theorem

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{s}

Z = \frac{51 - 50}{0.4366}

Z = 2.29

Z = 2.29 has a pvalue of 0.9890

1 - 0.989 = 0.011

0.011 = 1.1% probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 17 pins is at least 51

(b) What is the (approximate) probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 45 pins is at least 51?

Here n = 17, s = \frac{1.8}{\sqrt{45}} = 0.2683

Z = \frac{X - \mu}{s}

Z = \frac{51 - 50}{0.0.2683}

Z = 3.73

Z = 3.73 has a pvalue of 0.9999

1 - 0.9999 = 0.0001

0.0001 = 0.1% probability that the sample mean hardness for a random sample of 45 pins is at least 51

8 0
4 years ago
Easy 30 points ……………
cricket20 [7]

Answer:

D.

Step-by-step explanation:

it should be the sales tax because you pay a little bit more.

3 0
2 years ago
I need helpppp !!! :((
Andrew [12]

Im not 100% sure but I do think it is Ratio (red to blue) of the areas

Step-by-step explanation:

3 0
3 years ago
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