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koban [17]
3 years ago
9

A machine can make 5 miles of ribbon in an hour. Graph the length of the ribbon the

Mathematics
1 answer:
blagie [28]3 years ago
8 0
6555555500000jjjjhhu
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5q greater than or equal to 8q -3/2
kakasveta [241]

5q ≥ 8q - 3/2

<em><u>Add 3/2 to both sides.</u></em>

3/2 + 5q ≥ 8q

<em><u>Subtract 5q from both sides.</u></em>

3/2 ≥ 3q

<em><u>Multiply both sides by 2.</u></em>

3 ≥ 6q

<em><u>Divide both sides by 6.</u></em>

0.5 ≥ q.

The value of q is less than or equal to 0.5.

8 0
3 years ago
A cylinder has a volume of 288 pi cubic meters and a height of 9 meters. What is the area of the base?
Pavlova-9 [17]

Answer:

The area of the base is about 32 square meters

Step-by-step explanation:

V = pi times r^2 times h which is the formula.

Since the volume is 288, and the height is 9 it is,

288 = pi times r^2 times 9,

288/9 = pi times r^2 times 9/9

32/pi = pi/pi times r^2

10.2 = r^2

The square root of 10.2 is about 3.19

Area formula is pi times radius, r^2

3.19 times 3.19  or 3.19^2 = 10.1761

10.1761 times pi is 31.96 which is about 32 square meters.

I hope this helps!

5 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A complex number z_1z 1 ​ z, start subscript, 1, end subscript has a magnitude |z_1|=6∣z 1 ​ ∣=6vertical bar, z, start subscript
aliina [53]

Answer:

The answer is "\bold{9.19- 9.19\ i}"

Step-by-step explanation:

When the value of z_1 has the following properties:

\to |z_1| =13

\theta = 315^{\circ} \\\\ = 1.75 \pi\ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \ \  \ _{where} \ \ (\pi = 180^{\circ})

Calculating the value of z_1 :

= 13 \times [ \cos(1.75 \pi ) + i \sin(1.75 \pi) ] \\\\=  13 \times[\cos(1.75 \pi - 2\pi ) + \ i \sin(1.75 \pi - 2\pi )]\\ \\= 13 \times [\cos(-0.25 \pi ) +\  i \sin(-0.25 \pi) ]\\\\= 13 \times [0.707106781 - 0.707106781]\\\\ =9.19 - 9.19\ i \\\\

3 0
3 years ago
I don’t understand this can someone please please help!!!!!!!!!!
AnnyKZ [126]

Answer:

172 ft 2

Step-by-step explanation:

SA=2lw+2lh+2hw, for

A=2(lw + lh + hw)=2·(7 · 2+ 8 · 2 + 8 · 7)= 172 ft 2.

Hope this helps,

Best of Luck!

8 0
3 years ago
Convert 8 1/6 into an improper fraction
zvonat [6]

Answer:

49/6

Step-by-step explanation:

8×6= 48

+ the numerator

8 0
3 years ago
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