Answer:
Perfection records in it's books an Investment in Associate of $486,000
Explanation:
Hi, your question has missing information, i tried to look for the full question online but I could not find it.
However, I have prepared below explanation to the problem.
When a firm has investments into another firm of less than 50% voting rights in stake but greater than 20% we say that firm has significant influent in the investee. The firm is said to have an Investment in an Associate.
Investments in Associates are always recorded using the Equity Method of Accounting.
<u>Entries for Investment in Associate are :</u>
Debit :Investment in Associate ($1,944,000 × 25%) $486,000
Credit : Share of profits of associate $486,000
Conclusion :
Perfection records in it's books an Investment in Associate of $486,000
The time taken to break even at buying 1 point will be in<u> 9 years</u>.
Given,
- Monthly mortgage payment =$958
- Monthly payment will be reduced to buy 1 point =$948.75
- Cost of each point =$1,000
Computation:
1. The computation of the reduced amount in the monthly mortgage payment:

2. The computation of yearly mortgage payment:

3. The computation of the number of years for the break-even by buying 1 point:

Therefore, to break even by buying 1 point the holder requires 9 years to reach.
To know more about mortgage payments, refer to the link:
brainly.com/question/1542555
64% (225-204)/55 = .38 …. Z table = .35971 (1-.35971) = .64 = 64%. I’m about 90% confident that’s the right answer
Answer:
Until Marginal Revenue = Marginal Cost
Explanation:
In the short run, a monopolistic ally competitive firm continues to increase production until MR = MC if it can at least cover its variable cost. This is the profit maximizing condition. If firm is able to cover his variable costs in short run, he should continue production.
Answer: see affixed, a document containing the solution
Explanation: