Answer:
$43 million
Explanation:
The cash flow statement categories the company's transactions in a financial period into 3 groups; these are operating, investing and financing.
The net profit/loss, depreciation, changes in current assets (other than cash) and liabilities are considered as operating activities including income taxes.
The sale of assets, interest received, purchase of investments are examples of investing activities while the issuance of stocks, debt principal deduction (loan settlement), issuance of debt securities etc are examples of financing activities.
An increase in assets other than cash is an outflow while an increase in liabilities is an inflow. Depreciation and other non-cash expenses deducted in the income statements are added back while the non-cash income such gain on asset are deducted from net income.
Peridot's Net cash outflows from investing activities (in millions)
= -$38 + $96 + $71 - $86
= $43
The gain from the disposal of land will be deducted from the net income under the cash flows from operating activities while the requisition of own shares is a financing activity.
Answer:
Expected return is: 7.37% and the Standard deviation is: 24.96%
Explanation:
Correlation between fund S&B=0,0667
Standard Deviation of Fund S=41%
Standard Deviation of Fund(B)=30%
E(R) of Stock Fund S=12%
E(R) of Stock Fund B=5%
Covariance between the funds = Standard Deviation of Fund(B) × Standard Deviation of Fund S × correlation between these funds
Cov = 0.41 × 0.30 × 0.0667 = 0.008204
Now minimum variance portfolio is found by applying:
W min(S)=(SDB)^2-Cov(B,S) / ((SDS)^2+(SDB)^2-2Cov(B,S)
W min(S) = 0.338431
W min(B) = 1-0.338431=0.661569
1) E(r)min= 0.338431 × 12% + 0.661569 × 5% = 7.37%
2) Standard Deviation:
SD Min = (Ws^2XSDs^2+Wb^2XSDb^2+2XWsWb*Cov(s,B)^1/2
SDmin=(0.338431^2 × 0.41^2 + 0.661569^2 × 0.3^2 + 2 × 0.338431 × 0.661569 × 0.008204)^1/2
SDmin=24.96%
Answer:
$24,000
Explanation:
Since in the question it is given that the 3% of credit sales is considered to be a bad debt expense
where,
Credit sales is $800,000
And, the estimated percentage is 3%
So by considering this above information, the amount debited to bad debt expense is
= $800,000 × 3%
= $24,000
All the other information i.e to be given is not relevant. Hence, ignored it
Answer:
Option C Tier 2
Explanation:
the reason is that the tier 2 vendors targets firms that are of medium sizes which means the revenue of such organization ranges between $20m to $1 billion. And this falls under the classification of Enterprise resource planning. According to a market research 200,000 US companies have met the condition for medium sized organization.
The above explanation provides reasons why option C is correct.
