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kow [346]
3 years ago
15

A triangle with vertices at (0,4), (3,5), and (2, -l) is rotated 90 degree counterclockwise about the origin. What are the verti

ces of the image?

Mathematics
1 answer:
Ksenya-84 [330]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

(0,4) \implies (-4, 0)\\(3,5) \implies (-5,3)\\(2,-1) \implies (1,2)

Step-by-step explanation:

A 90° counterclockwise rotation is defined as

(x,y) \implies (-y,x)

The given coordinates are

(0,4)\\(3,5)\\(2,-1)

Applying the 90° counterclockwise rotation, we have

(0,4) \implies (-4, 0)\\(3,5) \implies (-5,3)\\(2,-1) \implies (1,2)

The image attached show both figures.

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What is bigger 40% of 210 or 1/4
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40% of 210 is 525, and 1/4 of 210 is 52.5, so the answer is 40% of 210 > 1/4 of 210.
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Paisley is going to invest $28,000 and leave it in an account for 14 years. Assuming the interest is compounded monthly, what in
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Answer:

r=7

Step-by-step explanation:

74000=28000(1+r/12)^12(14)

divide 74000 by 28000, and cancel out 28000.

1.00580=1+r/12

(100) .06962=r

r = 6.96198

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3 years ago
Dave and Busters charges 2.50 per game in the arcade plus a one-time entrance fee of $10.
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Answer:

C) y = 2.50x + 10

Step-by-step explanation:

Equation C is saying:

total cost = 2.50(number of games) + $10 entery fee

Hope this helps :)

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3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A milligram is what fraction of a kilogram
pishuonlain [190]
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3 years ago
The Copy Shop has made 20 copies of a document for you. Since the defective rate is 0.1, you think there may be some defective c
Pepsi [2]

Answer:

Binomial

There is a 34.87% probability that you will encounter neither of the defective copies among the 10 you examine.

Step-by-step explanation:

For each copy of the document, there are only two possible outcomes. Either it is defective, or it is not. This means that we can solve this problem using the binomial probability distribution.

Binomial probability distribution:

The binomial probability is the probability of exactly x successes on n repeated trials, and X can only have two outcomes.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

In which C_{n,x} is the number of different combinatios of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

And p is the probability of X happening.

In this problem

Of the 20 copies, 2 are defective, so p = \frac{2}{20} = 0.1.

What is the probability that you will encounter neither of the defective copies among the 10 you examine?

This is P(X = 0) when n = 10.

P(X = x) = C_{n,x}.p^{x}.(1-p)^{n-x}

P(X = 0) = C_{10,0}.(0.1)^{0}.(0.9)^{10} = 0.3487

There is a 34.87% probability that you will encounter neither of the defective copies among the 10 you examine.

8 0
4 years ago
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