Answer:
c. Risk is higher if a company has more assets.
Explanation:
Financial leverage is the measurement of risk based on the debt of the company. More liabilities involves high risk because company does not have enough to pay for the it's liabilities. If company has more assets then the risk if lower because company is able to pay its liabilities from its assets. The statement " Risk is higher if a company has more assets" is incorrect.
Two methods of capital investment analysis that incorporate the time value of money are -Net Present Value and Discounted Cash Flow
1- Net Present Value
Net Present Value reduces the expected future cash flows by a specific rate to arrive at their value in today's terms. After subtracting the initial investment cost from the present value of the expected cash flows, it can be determined whether the project is worth pursuing. If the NPV is a positive number, it means it's worth pursuing while a negative NPV means the future cash flows aren't generating enough return to be worth it and cover the initial investment.
2- Discounted Cash Flow
With DCF analysis, the discount rate is typically the rate of return that's considered risk-free and represents the alternative investment of the project. The present value is the value of the expected cash flows in today's dollars by discounting or subtracting the discount rate. If the result or present value of the cash flows is greater than the rate of return from the discount rate, the investment is worth pursuing.
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Answer:
Interest per six months =$64,750
.
Explanation:
B<em>onds are instruments used by companies, governments and other entries to borrow from the public. </em>
<em>They represent a contractual agreement where the borrower commits to pay a percentage of the principal amount borrowed plus the principal amount to the lender or investor.</em>
The proportion of the amount borrowed which is paid as interest is called coupon. The interest payment is computed as the the coupon rate in percentage multiplied by the amount borrowed.
Interest payment = Coupon rate (%) × Nominal Value
Annual interest payment = 7% × 1,850,000 =$129,500
Semi-annual interest payment = Annual interest payment/2
Semi-annual interest payment =129,500
/2 =64,750
.
Interest per six months =$64,750
.
Note we had to divide by 2 because they are two six months in a year.
Answer:
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Answer:Please refer to the explanation section
Explanation:
The question is incomplete, amounts of production costs like Direct Material, direct labour and Variable/Fixed manufacturing overheard were not given, we will explain the absorption cost and variable cost in detail so that the student would be able to calculate absorption cost and variable cost balances easier.
Absorption costing Method
Total Manufacturing costs are allocated to Finished goods Product. Absorption Costing method assigns or allocates the total cost of Manufacturing or total production costs to units of Finished Goods produced. each unit of finished goods thus represents total costs of production per unit or Total Manufacturing/Production cost is the Balance of Finished Goods.
Total Manufacturing/Production cost = direct labor cost + direct material cost + variable and fixed Manufacturing overheads cost.
Finished Goods Balance = Total Manufacturing/Production cost
A unit of Finished Goods = Total Manufacturing costs/units produced
Variable costing method
Variable costing method fixed manufacturing costs are treated as an expense, Variable Manufacturing costs are the only allocated to inventory. The value or Balance of inventory consist of Variable Manufacturing cost like Direct labor, Direct Material and Variable Manufacturing costs. Finished Goods Balance equals total Variable Manufacturing cost
