Answer:
True
Explanation:
The actual amount of the decrease in foreign investment is less than 100% therefore, if foreign investment fell by 100%, it would be cut in half. Apparently, a decrease of 200% means that it would be totally eliminated, and a decrease of more than 200% is impossible.The the statement does not mention the initial amount of foreign investment.
Answer:
$1,138.92
Explanation:
Current bond price can be calculated present value (PV) of cash flows formula below:
Current price or PV of bond = C{[1 - (1 + i)^-n] ÷ i} + {M × (1 + i)^-n} ...... (1)
Where:
Face value = $1,000
r = coupon rate = 7.2% annually = (7.2% ÷ 2) semiannually = 3.6% semiannually
C = Amount of semiannual interest payment = Face value × r
C = $1,000 × 3.6% = $36
n = number of payment periods remaining = (12 - 1) × 2 = 22
i = YTM = 5.5% annually = (5.5% ÷ 2) semiannually = 2.75% semiannually = 0.0275 semiannually
M = value at maturity = face value = $1,000
Substituting the values into equation (1), we have:
PV of bond = 36{[1 - (1 + 0.0275)^-22] ÷ 0.0275} + {1,000 × (1 + 0.0275)^-22}
PV of bond = $1,138.92.
Therefore, the current bond price is $1,138.92.
Answer:
The private savings as a share of the GDP must have declined.
Explanation:
according to the twin deficit hypothesis:
budget deficit = savings + trade deficit - investments
the government deficit as a share of GDP declined and investment as a share of GDP remained constant that means that the savings should decline.
Answer:
The answer is D I would say.
Answer
The answer and procedures of the exercise are attached in the following image.
Explanation
Please consider the data provided by the exercise. If you have any question please write me back. All the exercises are solved in a single sheet with the formulas indications.
