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Lisa [10]
1 year ago
15

A country with a trade surplus generally has a favorable balance of payments, which means?

Business
1 answer:
Anna [14]1 year ago
4 0

Trade with foreign nations brings in more money for the nation than it expends.

Why is there a trade surplus?

A trade surplus is an economic indicator indicating a favorable trade balance where a nation's exports are more than its imports.

Total Value of Exports minus Total Value of Imports is the trade balance.

When the outcome of the computation above is positive, there is a trade surplus.. It takes place when the outcome of the aforementioned computation is negative and is the opposite of a trade surplus, which denotes a net inflow. The Bureau of Economic Analysis in the US publishes trade balances on a monthly basis.

to know more about trade surplus

brainly.com/question/4126723

#SPJ4

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Kim’s flowers decided to borrow $26,000 from the bank and use the proceeds to purchase a new delivery vehicle. How should they c
Neko [114]

Based on the fact that Kim's flowers borrowed the money and used it to buy a new delivery vehicle, this business activity should be categorized as both a financing activity and an investing activity.

<h3>What should they classify this business activity as?</h3>

Because Kim's Flowers got the money as a loan, it would be recorded as an inflow for financial activities.

They then used it to purchase a delivery vehicle which is an investment and a capital asset so this will count as an investment activity.

Find out more on classifying business activities at brainly.com/question/14790406

#SPJ1

8 0
1 year ago
What is the difference between asset management and wealth management
ladessa [460]

Answer:

here is ur answer

Explanation:

wealth management comes down to what services you need. Asset management is about choosing and managing investments. Wealth management, on the other hand, looks more broadly at a person's financial life and portfolio. Some financial advisors do both, allowing you to hire just one person for the job.

8 0
2 years ago
Piedmont Hotels is an all-equity company. Its stock has a beta of .82. The market risk premium is 6.9 percent and the risk-free
katrin2010 [14]

Answer:

11.86%

Explanation:

Piedmont hotels can be described as an all-equity company

Its stock has a beta of 0.82

The market risk premium is 6.9%

The risk free rate is 4.5%

The adjustment is 1.7%

Therefore, the required rate of return can be calculated as follows

Required rate of return= Risk free rate of return + ( beta×market risk premium) + adjustment

= 4.5% + (0.82×6.9%) + 1.7%

= 4.5% + 5.658 + 1.7%

= 11.86%

Hence the required rate of return for the project is 11.86%

7 0
3 years ago
Click this link to view O*NET’s Wages and Employment section for Construction Managers. According to O*NET, what is the projecte
Aleks04 [339]
Do you know the answer cause I. Need help aswellllllllllll
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A popular soft drink is sold in 2​-liter ​(​2000-milliliter) bottles. Because of variation in the filling​ process, bottles have
saul85 [17]

Answer:

The answer is below.

Explanation:

The z score is a used in statistics to determine by how many standard deviations the raw score is above or below the mean. The z score is given by:

z=\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma}\\\\where\ x=raw\ score, \mu=mean,\sigma=standard\ deviation\\\\For\ a\ sample\ size(n):\\\\z=\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma/\sqrt{n} }

a) Given that n = 100, μ = 2000, σ = 18

For x < 1995 millimeters:

z=\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma/\sqrt{n} }=\frac{1995-2000}{18/\sqrt{100} }  =-2.78

From the normal distribution table, P(x < 1995) = P(z < -2.78) = 0.0027

b) P(z > z*)  = 10% = 0.1

P(z < z*) = 1 - 0.1 = 0.9

z* = 1.28

z*=\frac{x-\mu}{\sigma/\sqrt{n} }\\\\1.28=\frac{x-2000}{18/\sqrt{100} }\\\\x-2000  =-2.304\\\\x=2002.3\ ml\\\\

From the normal distribution table, P(z < z

6 0
3 years ago
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