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Lisa [10]
1 year ago
15

A country with a trade surplus generally has a favorable balance of payments, which means?

Business
1 answer:
Anna [14]1 year ago
4 0

Trade with foreign nations brings in more money for the nation than it expends.

Why is there a trade surplus?

A trade surplus is an economic indicator indicating a favorable trade balance where a nation's exports are more than its imports.

Total Value of Exports minus Total Value of Imports is the trade balance.

When the outcome of the computation above is positive, there is a trade surplus.. It takes place when the outcome of the aforementioned computation is negative and is the opposite of a trade surplus, which denotes a net inflow. The Bureau of Economic Analysis in the US publishes trade balances on a monthly basis.

to know more about trade surplus

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Assume that you have a subsidiary in Australia. The subsidiary sells mobile homes to local consumers in Australia, who buy the h
Nat2105 [25]

Answer:

B. decrease

Explanation:

The subsidiary's cost of purchasing materials measured in Australian dollar will decrease. The subsidiary in Australia sells mobile homes. It borrows funds from local bank and purchases material from Hong Kong and pays Hong Kong in HK$ which is tied to US dollar. So when Australian dollar appreciates against the Hong Kong dollar, it will appreciate against US dollar as the Hong Kong dollar is tied to US dollar. The subsidiary will pay decreased cost of purchasing material due to appreciations of A$ by increasing interest rate in Australia.  

4 0
3 years ago
Gilberto's Performance Pizza is a small restaurant in Chicago that sells gluten-free pizzas. Gilberto's very tiny kitchen has ba
Leno4ka [110]

Answer:

However, Gilberto's decision regarding how many workers to use can vary from week to week because his workers tend to be students. Each Monday, Gilberto lets them know how many workers he needs for each day of the week. In the short run, these workers are <u>VARIABLE</u> inputs, and the ovens <u>FIXED</u> inputs.

Explanation:

In the long run, all inputs are variable. E.g. in 5 years Gilberto might build his own pizza place and he will be able to make the kitchen as large as he wants.

But in the short run, some inputs are variable because they can be changed immediately, e.g. the number of workers changes on a weekly basis. While other inputs are fixed, and cannot be changed, e.g. Gilberto has a two yer lease contract for the ovens, so he will continue to use these ovens until the lease expires (in 2 years).

The long run and short doesn't depend on time, but on the ability of being able to change the inputs consumed by a business. The long run might represent 10 years for a company that signed a 10 year lease contract.        

5 0
3 years ago
Sanctions are a type of trade restriction that is ineffective in forcing change in other countries.
Nikolay [14]

<span>The answer to this question is False. Sanctions do not only rarely achieve their goal of forcing change in the targeted country, but they also tend to produce collateral economic damage in the nations that do apply them.</span>

3 0
3 years ago
Which of these options for saving money typically offers the least liquidity?. . A.Savings bond. B.Money market account. C.Certi
zhuklara [117]
Among the following <span>options for saving money that typically offers the least liquidity, (A) Savings Bond is the correct answer. The term that is being referred here which 'least liquidity' means that you or any other person can not withdraw any money at any time they want.</span>
6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
You are considering two investment alternatives. The first is a stock that pays quarterly dividends of $0.32 per share and is tr
MrMuchimi

Answer:

The 1-year HPR for the second stock is <u>12.84</u>%. The stock that will provide the better annualized holding period return is <u>Stock 1</u>.

Explanation:

<u>For First stock </u>

Total dividend from first stock = Dividend per share * Number quarters = $0.32 * 2 = $0.64

HPR of first stock = (Total dividend from first stock + (Selling price after six months - Initial selling price per share)) / Initial selling price = ($0.64 + ($31.72 - $27.85)) / $27.85 = 0.1619, or 16.19%

Annualized holding period return of first stock = HPR of first stock * Number 6 months in a year = 16.19% * 2 = 32.38%

<u>For Second stock </u>

Total dividend from second stock = Dividend per share * Number quarters = $0.67 * 4 = $2.68

Since you expect to sell the stock in one year, we have:

Annualized holding period return of second stock = The 1-year HPR for the second stock = (Total dividend from second stock + (Selling price after six months - Initial selling price per share)) / Initial selling price = ($2.68+ ($36.79 - $34.98)) / $34.98 = 0.1284, or 12.84%

Since the Annualized holding period return of first stock of 32.38% is higher than the Annualized holding period return of second stock of 12.84%. the first stock will provide the better annualized holding period return.

The 1-year HPR for the second stock is <u>12.84</u>%. The stock that will provide the better annualized holding period return is <u>Stock 1</u>.

6 0
3 years ago
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