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solmaris [256]
3 years ago
8

A small barbershop is operated by a single barber. it has room for at most two customers. potential customers arrive as a poisso

n process with a rate of three per hour, and the successive service times are independent exponential random variables with mean 0.25 hour. find: (a) the average number of customers in the shop. (b) the proportion of potential customers that enter the shop (in the long run). (c) if the barber could work twice as fast, how much more business could he do?
Business
1 answer:
Zigmanuir [339]3 years ago
8 0

λ=3 , mu = 5

<u>Explanation</u>:

λ=3

mu = 5

states

0 - no customers

1- 1 customre

2 - 2 customers

Set up Equations

Rate of entry = Rate of exit

5P1 =3P0

5P2 + 3P0 = 5P1 + 3P1

3P1 = 5P2

P0 + P1 + P2 = 1

solve the above

1a) = 0 into P0 plus 1 into P1 plus 2 into P2

b) λ ( 1 minus P2) by λ = 1 - P2

c) change the paramater mu = 5 into 2 and solve a) again

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Pureform, Inc., manufactures a product that passes through two departments. Data for a recent month for the first department fol
8_murik_8 [283]

Explanation:

Equivalent units    

                                             Materials         Labor           Overhead  

Work in process inventory,       23,100.00        34,650.00   34,650.00  

beginning

Units started and completed  6,73,000.00    6,73,000.00  6,73,000.00  

Work in process inventory,     28,000.00     14,000.00           14,000.00  

ending

Equivalent units                   7,24,100.00      7,21,650.00     7,21,650.00  

First department cost per unit for first department    

                        Materials   Labor       Overhead        Total  

Current costs    11,94,765.00     2,88,660.00   5,05,155.00   19,88,580.00  

Equivalent units  7,24,100.00   7,21,650.00   7,21,650.00  

Cost per Equivalent unit   1.65      0.40           0.70         2.75  

The equivalent units for materials,labor and overhead are as follows:

                 Equivalent units

Materials   724,000

Labor         721,650

Overhead  721,650

In addition,the cost per unit for equivalent units are as follows:

Materials  1.65

Labor        0.40

Overhead 0.70

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7 0
3 years ago
Given the following two potential locations to construct an urgent care, use incremental B/C ratio to determine which location,
White raven [17]

Answer:

The incremental benefit cost ratio is less than 1 therefore we must select site 1.

Explanation:

The incremental BCR can be determined using the following formula

\Delta BC_R = \frac{AW_B-AW_D-AW_M}{AW_i}

AW_C=1,000,000(A/P, 8% , 10)

⇒ AW_C= 1,000,000 \times \frac{0.08}{1-1.08^-^1^0}

⇒ AW_2=2,000,000(A/P, 8%, 20)

⇒ AW_2= 2,000,000 \times \frac{0.08}{1-1.08^-^2^0}

⇒AW_C_2 = $203,704.42

Incremental initial investment = 203,704.42 - 149,029.49

= $ 54,674.93

Incremental benefits = 580,000 - 520,000 = 60,000

Incremental O&M = 75,000 - 80,000 = - $ 5000

Incremental Disbenefits = 140,000 - 90,000 =$ 50,000

\Delta BC_R = \frac{60,000-50,000-(-5000)}{54,674.93} \\\\\Delta BC_R=0.2743

All solving using the present worth method also incremental benefit cost ratio comes out to be 0.2743.

The incremental benefit cost ratio is less than 1 therefore we must select site 1.

3 0
3 years ago
Troy (single) purchased a home in Hopkinton, MA, on January 1,2007, for $300,000. He sold the home on January 1, 2016, for$320,0
Kryger [21]

Answer:

Person T has rented home for the period of 1st January 2007 to 31st December 2011 for principal purpose. Person T used the home for living from the date 1st January 2012 to 31st December 2012. From 1st January 2013 to 31st December 2013. T rented premises. Afterward. Person T used the home for living from the date 1st January 2014 to 31st December 2012. Accumulated depreciation on the same is SO.

1st January 2007 to 31st December 2011- Rented for 5 years

1st January 2012 to 31st December 2012 — Principal resident for 1 year 1st January 2013 to 31st December 2013- Rented for 1 year

1st January 2013 to 31st December 2016 — Principal resident for 4 years

Person T is successful in criteria of user test and ownership tests. As Person T has used the home for a minimum two years out of the last five years from the date of sale. Person T has used home for the principal residence for 5 years and 6 years as a rented resident. Hence allowance of gain should be in proportion basis.

Calculation of percentage of gain for which Person T is eligible for an exemption from paying tax:

Exemption = (Principal residence year/Total no.of years)  × 100  

Exemption = (5/11) × 100

Exemption = 45.45%

Hence, 45.45% is exempted from tax.

Calculation of amount for which Person T is eligible for an exemption from paying tax

Exempted amount = Tax Exemption x Capital gain

= 45.45% × $20,000

= $9,090

Hence, the eligible amount of exemption is $9,090.

Calculation of amount for Person T is not eligible for an exception from paying tax

Not exempted amount = Total profit - Exempted amount

Not exempted amount = $20,000 - $9,090

Not exempted amount = $10,910

Hence. Person T can claim exemption of capital gain for $9.090 from her total taxable income.

6 0
3 years ago
3. Kevin took out a loan for a car. He must pay $3,000.00 in interest, service
ss7ja [257]

Answer:

The finance charge

Explanation:

The finance charge is the total cost incurred when borrowing money, including interest amount and all other fees. It is the extra money paid on top of the borrowed amount. The finance charge may be a flat fee or a percentage of the principal amount.

The finance charge represents the expense incurred for using credit. The finance charge is an important consideration when choosing a preferred lender.

8 0
3 years ago
Collateralized mortgage obligation (CMO) tranche A has been created to have the most predictable near-term principal pay off. A
Mamont248 [21]

Answer: d. a lower yield

Explanation:

When a security is said to bring back predictable returns it means the security is of lower risk. A CMO tranche that has the most predictable near-term principal pay off is therefore the one with the a lower risk.

Riskier securities command higher yield than less riskier ones as a way to compensate the holder for taking on more risk. With tranche A having the lower risk, it will have a lower yield.

5 0
3 years ago
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