Answer:
Probability that one type of candy will be chosen more than once in 10 trials = 0.2639
Step-by-step explanation:
This is a binomial experiment because
- A binomial experiment is one in which the probability of success doesn't change with every run or number of trials.
- It usually consists of a number of runs/trials with only two possible outcomes, a success or a failure. (10 trials, with the outcome of each trial being that we get the required candy or not)
- The outcome of each trial/run of a binomial experiment is independent of one another.
Binomial distribution function is represented by
P(X = x) = ⁿCₓ pˣ qⁿ⁻ˣ
n = total number of sample spaces = 10 trials
x = Number of successes required = number of times we want to pick a particular brand of candy = more than once, that is > 1
p = probability of success = probability of picking a particular brand of candy from a bulk with 10 different types of candies = (1/10) = 0.10
q = probability of failure = Probability of not picking our wanted candy = 1 - p = 1 - 0.1 = 0.90
P(X > 1) = 1 - P(X ≤ 1)
P(X ≤ 1) = P(X = 0) + P(X = 1)
P(X = 0) = ¹⁰C₀ (0.10)⁰ (0.90)¹⁰⁻⁰ = 0.3486784401
P(X = 1) = ¹⁰C₁ (0.10)¹ (0.90)¹⁰⁻¹ = 0.387420489
P(X ≤ 1) = 0.3486784401 + 0.387420489 = 0.7360989291
P(X > 1) = 1 - 0.7360989291 = 0.2639010709 = 0.2639
Hope this Helps!!!
. +12 on both sides to get 
. Divide by -8 to get 