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dolphi86 [110]
3 years ago
7

The analysis of receivables method of costing inventory is based on the assumption that: a.the bad debt expense is recorded only

when an account is determined to be worthless. b.the uncollectible accounts can be estimated as a percentage of credit sales. c.the bad debt expense is recorded by estimating uncollectible accounts at the end of the accounting period. d.the longer an account receivable is outstanding, the less likely that it will be collected.
Business
1 answer:
coldgirl [10]3 years ago
8 0

Answer:

b.the uncollectible accounts can be estimated as a percentage of credit sales.

Explanation:

Accounts receivable refer to money that customer owes a business. Receivable arises because a company may sell its goods or services on credit. An analysis of account receivable involves an assessment of the aging report to determine the receivables that are likely not be paid.  

The allowance method is one way of managing the uncollectable accounts receivable. This method involves the creation of account bad debts expense account and a contra-asset account, the allowance for doubtful accounts. The business makes a record of the amount is expects not to be collected at the end of the accounting period. When a specific account receivable is confirmed as uncollectible, the accountant debits allowance for doubtful accounts while crediting accounts receivable. The assumption under this method is the bad debt expense can be estimated as a percentage of the total sales.

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Answer:

The Price of Cocaine would rise drastically

Explanation:

If U.S Drugs Enforcement Agency impose higher restrictions in an effort to control illegal import of cocaine into the United States, this would directly impact the market for illegal drugs in the following ways:

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  • The supply of cocaine would shrink in the market.
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Thus, price of cocaine will rise drastically as an outcome of such a move.

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Ganado and Equity Risk Premiums. Maria​ Gonzalez, Ganado's Chief Financial​ Officer, estimates the​ risk-free rate to be 3.50 %​
Elza [17]

Answer:

WACC (CAPM) 5.2%

WACC (ICAPM) 5.03%

Explanation:

The weighted average cost of capital is

Ke * E/ E+D + Kd * (1 -t) D / E+D

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Ke (CAPM) = 3.50% + (8% - 3.50%) * 1.12

Ke (CAPM) = 7.532%

Kd (CAPM) = Kd (1-t)

Kd (CAPM) = 7.60 (1-39%)

Kd (CAPM) = 4.636%

WACC (ICAPM) : 7.532 * 20% + 4.636 * 80%

WACC (CAPM) = 5.2164%

Ke (ICAPM) = 3.50% + (8% - 3.50%) * 0.86

Ke (ICAPM) = 6.596%

Kd (ICAPM) = Kd (1-t)

Kd (ICAPM) = 7.60 (1-39%)

Kd (ICAPM) = 4.636%

WACC (ICAPM) : 6.596 * 20% + 4.636 * 80%

WACC (CAPM) = 5.03%

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3 years ago
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Answer:

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Since Todd is a cash basis taxpayer, he included the $1,500 insurance premium in his 2019 tax return. Cash basis taxpayer report revenues or expenses when the cash is received or paid, not when the service is provided.

Since he received a $500 refund in 2020, he should include it in his 2020 tax return. As a cash basis taxpayer, any money received is considered income.

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