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vladimir1956 [14]
3 years ago
13

A firm sells a product in a purely competitive market. The marginal cost of the product at the current output of 200 units is $4

.00. The minimum possible average variable cost is $3.50. The market price of the product is $3.00. To maximize profits or minimize losses, the firm should: Group of answer choices
Business
1 answer:
sattari [20]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

It must shut down

Explanation:

Even at the lower average variable cost, which is 3.50 dolllar will be lossing money given a market price of 3.00 dollar

Considering is not making enough to cover the variable cost the best option is to shut down and only take a hit for the fixed cost  until it can totally exit the market. If it tries to produce it will only make thinks worse as producing generates more losses

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Rediger Inc., a manufacturing Corporation, has provided the following data for the month of June. The balance in the Work in Pro
AVprozaik [17]

Answer:

$150,900

Explanation:

Calculation for what The cost of goods manufactured for June was:

Direct materials $56,800

Direct labor $30,700

Manufacturing overhead applied to work in process $53,900

Total manufacturing costs $141,400

Add: Beginning work in process inventory $31,000

$172,400

Less: Ending work in process inventory $21,500

Cost of goods manufactured $150,900

($172,400-$21,500)

Therefore The cost of goods manufactured for June was:$150,900

4 0
3 years ago
The term ______ refers to the degree to which a firm uses debt financing (or other types of fixed-cost financing) to fund its op
jek_recluse [69]

Answer:

The term Operating leverage refers to the degree to which a firm uses debt financing (or other types of fixed-cost financing) to fund its operations.

Explanation:

Operating leverage is a measure of how revenue growth translates into growth in operating income

4 0
4 years ago
The cost of goods for Mandy Manufacturing Company flow through an assembly and a finishing department before being transferred t
laila [671]

Answer:

Option (D) is correct.

Explanation:

Given that,

Beginning work in process = $4,000

Ending work in process in finishing department = $6,000

Cost transferred = $47,000

Direct material = $15,000

Direct labor  = $46,000

Overhead  = $22,000

Cost incurred in finishing department:

= Beginning work in process + Cost transferred + Direct material + Direct labor + Overhead

= $4,000 + $47,000 + $15,000 + $46,000 + $22,000

= $134,000

Cost of goods transferred to the Finished Goods Inventory account:

= Cost incurred in finishing - Ending work in process

= $134,000 - $6,000

= $128,000

5 0
4 years ago
At the end of the year, a company has a $1,200 debit balance in Manufacturing Overhead. As a result, the company:a.makes an adju
Nonamiya [84]

Answer:

d. makes an adjusting journal entry by debiting Cost of Goods Sold for $1,200 and crediting Manufacturing Overhead for $1,200.

Explanation:

The debit balance of $1,200 in the Manufacturing Overhead account represents under-applied overhead.  To ensure that the Cost of Goods Sold is accurate, the debit balance is debited to the Cost of Goods Sold while the corresponding credit goes to the Manufacturing Overhead account.

5 0
3 years ago
Cheryl was balancing the Trial Balance of the company. She found that the debit balance totaled $73,000 and the credit balance w
klio [65]
I think it is both sides

4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
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