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Tanzania [10]
2 years ago
5

How can you solve the equation 4x= 2X-2 graphically?

Mathematics
2 answers:
Vanyuwa [196]2 years ago
4 0
This is 4x=2x-2 as a graph

Ghella [55]2 years ago
4 0
-2 is the y intercept meaning you need to graph the -2 on the y axis. Then for the slope, it is m in the mx which is 2. So you graph left or right. It’s basically rise over run
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i have 17 coins. N of them are nickels and the rest are dimes. write an expression in two different ways for the amount of money
sergiy2304 [10]

Answer:

0.05N - 0.1N + 1.7 (in dollars

1.7 - 0.05N (in dollars)

Step-by-step explanation:

Given :

Total number of coins = 17

Number of nickels = N

Number of dimes = 17 - N

1 nickel = 5 cent = $0.05

1 dime = 10 cent = $0.1

The amount of money :

(Value of nickel * number of nickels) + (value of dime * number of dime)

(0.05 * N) + (0.1 * (17-N))

0.05N + 1.7 - 0.1N

0.05N - 0.1N + 1.7

-0.05N + 1.7 = 1.7 - 0.05N

4 0
3 years ago
I do not know if is a function or not. Please explain
bezimeni [28]
It is a function because in a function the x's do not repeat. So since there are no two numbers in the x column that are the same, yes it is a function.
8 0
3 years ago
Lines or points that do not lie on the same surface or plane.
Leokris [45]
Collinear Points: points that lie on the same line. Coplanar Points: points that lie in the same plane. Opposite Rays: 2 rays that lie on the same line, with a common endpoint and no other points in common.
8 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Stacy uses a spinner with six equal sections numbered 2, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 to play a game. Write a probability model for this ex
allsm [11]

Answer:

We estimate to have 8.33 times the number 6 in 50 trials.

Step-by-step explanation:

Let us consider a success to get a 6. In this case, note that the probability of having a 6 in one spin is 1/6. We can consider the number of 6's in 50 spins to be a binomial random variable. Then, let X to be the number of trials we get a 6 out of 50 trials. Then, we have the following model.

P(X=k) = \binom{50}{k}(\frac{1}{6})^k(\frac{5}{6})^{50-k}

We will estimate the number of times that she spins a 6 as the expected value of this random variable.

Recall that if we have X as a binomial random variable of n trials with a probability of success of p, then it's expected value is np.

Then , in this case, with n=50 and p=1/6 we expect to have \frac{50}{6} number of times of having a 6, which is 8.33.

6 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
If you can help me with these 3 questions that would be awesome! :)
AfilCa [17]

Answer:

1) \frac{5m - 3}{8} 2) -3.68 3) E

6 0
3 years ago
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