Answer: Long-term assets are assets with a duration of more than one year. From the list the parties classified as long-term assets are three:
- Land
- Buildings
-Equipment
The rest of the games are classified as:
Accounts receivable (short-term assets)
Notes payable (due in three years) (Long-term liabilities)
Accounts payable (Short-term liabilities)
Retained Revenue (Equity)
Prepaid rental (Short-term assets)
Unearned Renvenue (Short-term liabilities)
Notes payable (due in six months) (Short Term Liabilities)
Answer:
salary is a lump sum for work and fixed rate is a fixed rate that changes with amount of hours worked.
Explanation:
salary is a lump sum for work and fixed rate is a fixed rate that changes with amount of hours worked.
Brainliest appreciated!
Answer:
The forces of demand and supply in the market will pull the foreign exchange market into equilibrium.
Explanation:
When there is a surplus of dollar in the foreign exchange market the forces of demand and supply will pull the foreign exchange market into equilibrium.<em> i.e. The exchange rate will be reduced to bring the exchange market to equilibrium. </em> without change in demand or supply.
attached below is the required graph.
Answer:
ACME Drilling should record impairment loss of $6.9 million
Explanation:
According to GAAP, when the fair value of an asset is below the net carrying amount of that asset ( Asset's historical cost - Asset's accumulated depreciation or the net book value of the asset), the Company should record it as asset impairment loss.
In ACME's case, the net book value is $18.6 million while the estimated fair value is only $11.7 million meaning that the platform is actually worth less than it is recorded on ACME's book. Thus, an impairment loss of $6.9 million should be recorded ( $18.6 million - $11.7 million) to realize the fair value of the oil-drilling platform.
The sum of projected sum of future cash flows in this case is not suitable to be used to determine the oil-drilling platform because it has not been discounted to the present value amount, and also, it is not appropriate under GAAP.
60% of $90,000 is: 60/100*90,000=0.6*90,000=54,000
<span>So, the sales associate plans $64,000 from the total income to come from sold listings .
</span>40% of $90,000 is: 40/100*90,000=0.4*90,000=36,000
So, the sales associate plans $36,000 from the total income to come from sales made.
<span>If the average commission from listings sold is $3,000 she must cell X=64,000/3000=21,3 ~22 listings (at least) in order to achieve her goal.</span>
