Answer:
hi
Step-by-step explanation:
1+1=2
Answer:
1;infroei[q
Step-by-step explanation:
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Answer:
1.5 Oz because it's just a random guess hopefully I'm right
I think
The point of inflection is calculated by equating the second derivative to zero and determining x from there.
f"(x) = -x²2xsinx² + cosx²(2x) = 0
2xcosx² - 2x³sinx² = 0
2x (cosx² - xsinx²) = 0
2x = 0 ⇒ x = 0
cosx² - xsinx² = 0 ⇒ x = 3.82 (if you use shift+solve in your scientific calculator)
Thus, the function only has 1 point of inflection and it is at x = 0.
When you divide by the reciprocal, you flip the numbers and multiply across.
