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patriot [66]
3 years ago
13

What expression converts 100 inches per minute to feet per minute?

Mathematics
1 answer:
ehidna [41]3 years ago
6 0

1 foot= 12 inches.

To convert you must have "2 fractions" to multiply.

Your first fraction must be 100in/1min. (100 inches per 1 minute).

The second should serve to convert inches to feet. It should be 1 foot/ 12 inches. (1 foot per 12 inches).

Your product should be 100ft/12 which equals 8.3 repeating or 25/3 (8 1/3) feet.

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(5x+38)=(8x-19) what is the answer?
timofeeve [1]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

5x + 38 = 8x - 19

by transposing method,

5x - 8x = -19-38

-3x = -57

3x = 57

x = 57/3

x = 19

hope this helps

plz mark it as brainliest

3 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
A box of Georgia peaches has 3 bad and 12 good peaches. (a) If you make a peach cobbler of 12 peaches randomly selected from the
Eddi Din [679]

Answer:

a) 0.21% probability that there are no bad peaches in the peach cobbler.

b) 99.79% probability of having at least 1 bad peach in the peach cobbler

c) 7.91% probability of having exactly 2 bad peaches in the peach cobbler.

Step-by-step explanation:

A probability is the number of desired outcomes divided by the number of total outcomes.

The order in which the peaches are chosen is not important. So the combinations formula is used to solve this question.

Combinations formula:

C_{n,x} is the number of different combinations of x objects from a set of n elements, given by the following formula.

C_{n,x} = \frac{n!}{x!(n-x)!}

(a) If you make a peach cobbler of 12 peaches randomly selected from the box, what is the probability that there are no bad peaches in the peach cobbler?

Desired outcomes:

12 good peaches, from a set of 12. So

D = C_{12,12} = \frac{12!}{12!(12 - 12)!} = 1

Total outcomes:

12 peaches, from a set of 15. So

T = C_{15,12} = \frac{15!}{12!(15 - 12)!} = 455

Probability:

p = \frac{D}{T} = \frac{1}{455} = 0.0021

0.21% probability that there are no bad peaches in the peach cobbler.

(b) What is the probability of having at least 1 bad peach in the peach cobbler?

Either there are no bad peaches, or these is at least 1. The sum of the probabilities of these events is 100%. So

p + 0.21 = 100

p = 99.79

99.79% probability of having at least 1 bad peach in the peach cobbler

(c) What is the probability of having exactly 2 bad peaches in the peach cob- bler?

Desired outcomes:

2 bad peaches, from a set of 3.

One good peach, from a set of 12.

D = C_{3,2}*C_{12,1} = \frac{3!}{2!(3-2)!}*\frac{12!}{1!(12 - 1)!} = 36

Total outcomes:

12 peaches, from a set of 15. So

T = C_{15,12} = \frac{15!}{12!(15 - 12)!} = 455

Probability:

p = \frac{D}{T} = \frac{36}{455} = 0.0791

7.91% probability of having exactly 2 bad peaches in the peach cobbler.

3 0
3 years ago
Ronald started solving the equation -2(2xC – 4)+3 = 6x +1.<br> Which is a correct next step?
sweet-ann [11.9K]
C is the correct answer
4 0
3 years ago
Read 2 more answers
Pleaseeee help!!!! I will mark you as brainlinest for correct answer!!!!!!!!
marta [7]
I think the correct answer for that question is C
6 0
4 years ago
7th grade daughter lol. Please help a mom out!!!
dangina [55]

Answer:

plug each half of the ordered pair into the variable term. (x,y)

Step-by-step explanation:

For example (---,20) y=5x    20=5x divide by 5 on both sides 20/5= 4 x=4

6 0
3 years ago
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