The problem can be solved using the following formula:
F = P (1 + r/n)^nt
Where:
F = Future value = ?
P = principal value = 200
r = APR = 0.03
n = interest period = 4
t = duration of interest = 2
Substituting the given values into the equation:
F = 200 (1 + (0.03/4))^(4*2)
F = 212.32
Therefore, the CD will be worth $212.32 at maturity.
Answer:
Step-by-step explanation:
I uploaded a picture hope it helps
Answer:
I would say C but i'm not to sure of my answer.
Hope this helps.
Step-by-step explanation:
Multiplying is repeated addition, and a positive times a negative equals a negative, so you're only going to be needing the side with negatives that finally get to zero. First, find 0, then take it 6 numbers back, -6. repeat the step until you have three loops. It should equal -18. Hope this helps :)
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Answer: B) 2</h3>
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Explanation:
Take away the four white small squares on the left side. To balance things out, you have to add 4 black squares to the right side.
Also, take away the two white long rectangles from the right side. To balance this out, you have to add 2 gray long rectangles to the left side.
You should have:
- 5 gray rectangles, and no squares (of any color) on the left side
- 10 black squares, no long rectangles (of any color), on the right side
From here you'll group up the 10 black squares so that you'll have 2 black squares per gray rectangle.
This means the solution is 2.
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If you're curious about the algebraic way to solve, then you could do this:
3x-4 = -2x+6
3x+2x = 6+4
5x = 10
x = 10/5
x = 2
This method doesn't require us to use the visual model.