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vladimir1956 [14]
3 years ago
13

A. Find the slope of the line that passes through the two points: (4, 4) and (0, 2).

Mathematics
2 answers:
Vladimir [108]3 years ago
6 0

Answer:

Slope (m)= -2/-4= 0.5

-2/-4 as fraction form

or

0.5 as decimal form

Step-by-step explanation:

slope (m)= -2/-4= 0.5

points belong to an increasing linear function

equation: y=0.5x+2

Oksanka [162]3 years ago
5 0

Answer:

The slope is -2/-4 or simplified -1/-2

Step-by-step explanation:

First you would use the slope formula which is m=(y2-y1)/(x2-x1).

m = 2-4/0-4 which equals -2/-4

Then simplify to get -1/-2

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Five cards are drawn from a standard 52-card playing deck. A gambler has been dealt five cards—two aces, one king, one 3, and on
Nookie1986 [14]

Answer:

The probability that he ends up with a full house is 0.0083.

Step-by-step explanation:

We are given that a gambler has been dealt five cards—two aces, one king, one 3, and one 6. He discards the 3 and the 6 and is dealt two more cards.

We have to find the probability that he ends up with a full house (3 cards of one kind, 2 cards of another kind).

We know that gambler will end up with a full house in two different ways (knowing that he has given two more cards);

  • If he is given with two kings.
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Only in these two situations, he will end up with a full house.

Now, there are three kings and two aces left which means at the time of drawing cards from the deck, the available cards will be 47.

So, the ways in which we can draw two kings from available three kings is given by =  \frac{^{3}C_2 }{^{47}C_2}   {∵ one king is already there}

              =  \frac{3!}{2! \times 1!}\times \frac{2! \times 45!}{47!}           {∵ ^{n}C_r = \frac{n!}{r! \times (n-r)!} }

              =  \frac{3}{1081}  =  0.0028

Similarly, the ways in which one king and one ace can be drawn from available 3 kings and 2 aces is given by =  \frac{^{3}C_1 \times ^{2}C_1 }{^{47}C_2}

                                                                   =  \frac{3!}{1! \times 2!}\times \frac{2!}{1! \times 1!} \times \frac{2! \times 45!}{47!}

                                                                   =  \frac{6}{1081}  =  0.0055

Now, probability that he ends up with a full house = \frac{3}{1081} + \frac{6}{1081}

                                                                                    =  \frac{9}{1081} = <u>0.0083</u>.

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3 years ago
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andreev551 [17]
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