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Dahasolnce [82]
4 years ago
6

Cray Research sold a super computer to the Max Planck Institute in Germany on credit and invoiced €10 million payable insix mont

hs. Currently, the six-month forward exchange rate is $1.10/€ and the foreign exchange advisor for Cray Researchpredicts that the spot rate is likely to be $1.05/€ in six months.(a) What is the expected gain/ loss from the forward hedging?(b) If you were the financial manager of Cray Research, would you recommend hedging this euro receivable? Why or whynot?(c) Suppose the foreign exchange advisor predicts that the future spot rate will be the same as the forward exchange ratequoted today. Would you recommend hedging in this case? Why or why not?
Business
1 answer:
Reil [10]4 years ago
7 0

Answer:

a) The expected loss from the forward hedging = $432,900

b) No I wouldn’t recommend hedging the euro receivable based on the fact that the future spot rate is better off than the forward exchange rate.  

c) No I wouldn’t because in any case whether you hedge or not there will be no difference.

Explanation:

Solution.

Forward Exchange Rate = $1.10/€, therefore the equivalent of €10 million receivable from Germany in 6-month time = €10 million / Forward exchange rate ($1.10) = $9,090,909

However, the 6 months spot rate is $1.05/€, therefore if we simply wait till 6 months we will receive €10 million / Forward spot rate ($1.05) = $9,523,809.

a) The expected loss from the forward hedging = $9,523,809 - $9,523,809 = $432,900

b) No I wouldn’t recommend hedging the euro receivable based on the fact that the future spot rate is better off than the forward exchange rate.  

c) No I wouldn’t because in any case whether you hedge or not there will be no difference. You’ll just end up paying hedging fees which will impact on profits adversely.  

However it is always advisable to hedge foreign exchange risks because predictions could differ from reality and adverse movements in exchange rates could carry significant financial consequences which may not be comparable to the hedging costs.

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6 0
4 years ago
An online data entry program is used for original entry of vendor invoices. A batch check-writing program occasionally prepares
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<u>Answer:</u> Option 1 A record lookup for vendors during data entry.

<u>Explanation:</u>

Programmers will have the access to change the programs and data files in order to correct the errors. Vendor invoice is the document which shows the amount owed by the receiver to the supplier. On receiving the invoice it has to be uploaded using the accounting software and schedule the payment accordingly.

When data entry is done it is easy to find the errors in the system. The non sense characters in the payee field can be detected using the data entry. So data entry is considered to be the most effective programmed control.

3 0
3 years ago
For the following problem(s), consider these debt strategies being considered by a corporate borrower. Each is intended to provi
natita [175]

Answer:

From the strategies provided, the correct debt strategies that will help a corporate borrower eliminate credit risk are strategy 1 and strategy 2, which are; Strategy #1: Borrow $1,000,000 for three years at a fixed rate of interest of 7%. and Strategy #2: Borrow $1,000,000 for three years at a floating rate of LIBOR + 2%, to be reset annually. The current LIBOR rate is 3.50%.

5 0
4 years ago
McRae Corporation's total current assets are 412,000, its non-current assets are $524,000, its total current liabilities are____
lapo4ka [179]

Answer: See explanation

Explanation:

It should be noted that:

Working capital = Current assets - Current liabilities

$356000 = $412000 - Current liabilities

Current liabilities = $412000 - $356000

Current liabilities = $56000

Stockholders equity = Total asset - Total liability

Total asset = $412000 + $524000 = $936000

Total liabilities = $56000 + $274000

= $330,000

Stockholders equity = Total asset - Total liability

= $936000 - $330000

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5 0
3 years ago
Barry has a medical plan with a $1,200 deductible, 20% coinsurance, and a $5,000 coinsurance cap. His allowable medical expenses
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Based on his deductible and coinsurance cap, the amount that Barry will pay is <u>$4,560.</u>

<h3>Amount Barry will pay </h3>

Barry will have to pay the entire deductible of $1,200. The expenses that are left will then be shared between him and the insurer in a 20% - 80% ratio but he will not pay more than $5,000.

Total he will pay out of pocket is therefore:

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Solving gives:

= 1,200 + ( 20% x (18,000 - 1,200))

= $4,560

In conclusion, he will pay $4,560.

Find out more on insurance payments at brainly.com/question/25973180.

4 0
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