Complete Question:
The "invisible hand" using Adam Smith's terminology refers to
a. government control of the market.
b. market forces working through the price mechanism.
c. the money supply that serves to keep the economy working smoothly.
d. the role of innovation in maintaining a steady rate of growth.
e. "behind-the-scenes" policy making to influence how markets allocate scarce resources.
Answer:
The "invisible hand" using Adam Smith's terminology refers to Market forces working through the price mechanism.
Explanation:
The invisible hand is the in observable market force, which helps demand and delivers goods automatically to balance in a free market.
Description: In his book ' The Wealth of Nations ' Adam Smith implemented the phrase of the invisible hand.
An invisible hand that defines the processes through which favorable social and economic effects that emerge out of the self-interested behaviors obtained by individuals, who have no intention of producing such results. The term developed by the eighteenth-century British philosopher and economist Adam Smith.
Answer:
$66,667
Explanation:
Contribution margin = Sales Revenue - Variable cost = 240000-60000 = 180000
Percentage of contribution margin = Contribution margin / sales revenue = 180000 / 240000 = 75%
Breakevent point in total sales = Fixed costs / Percentage of contribution margin
= 50000/0.75 = $66,667
Answer:
Bill is also equally and somewhere more liable as he is the employer.
Explanation:
Although in records it might seem that George did the falsify act, but for that he required the permission of his employer.
When the fact is clearly stated that George did this on direction of his employer Bill, and that Bill demanded this intentionally in order to present extra profits, he is more liable for this false act.
As George is the employee, he is bound to follow the directions of his employer. Thus Bill is crucially liable for this act, as he is an important reason for this act.
Answer:
Investment, you buy a property to rent in hope to make your money back over time. So it would be considered an investment
Explanation:
Answer:
2.33 ; demand for movies is elastic
Explanation:
The computation of the price elasticity of demand is presented below:
= (change in quantity demanded ÷ average of quantity demanded) ÷ (percentage change in price ÷ average of price)
where,
Change in quantity demanded is
= Q2 - Q1
= 30 - 15
= 15
And, an average of quantity demanded is
= (30 + 15) ÷ 2
= 22.50
Change in price would be
= P2 - P1
= $8 - $6
= $2
And, the average of price is
= ($8 + $6) ÷ 2
= 7
So, after solving this, the price elasticity of demand is 2.33
Since it is not given by which method we have to calculate it. So, we use the mid point formula.
Based on the above calculation, we concluded that the demand for movies is elastic
